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Romashka-Z-Leto [24]
1 year ago
5

Projected free cash flows should be discounted at the firm's weighted average cost of capital to find the firm’s total corporate

value.
a. true
b. false
Business
1 answer:
Katena32 [7]1 year ago
3 0

The statement, projected free cash flows should be discounted at the firm's Weighted Average Cost of Capital to find the firm’s total corporate value, is true.

The Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC) is a firms average after-tax cost of capital from all sources including preferred stock, common stock, bonds, and other forms of debt. Also, projected free cash flows should be discounted at the firm's WACC.

Discounted free cash flow for the firm should be equal to all of the cash inflows and outflows. Also, it has to adjusted in order to present value by an appropriate interest rate, that the firm can be expected to bring in during its lifetime.

Thus, the WACC is commonly referred to as the firm's cost of capital.

Hence, option A is correct.

To learn more about Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC) here:

brainly.com/question/27375155

#SPJ4

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Who can become a principal and who can become an agent?a. Any person can become a principal, but an agent has to have the capaci
Rufina [12.5K]

Answer: Option A

Explanation: Any person can become a principal having sufficient business but in order to become an agent of the principal one needs to have the capacity to contract on behalf of the principal.

In a principal agent relationship, the principal bounds the agent to act on his behalf. So, there is no legal contracts to become a principal but the acts of agent are legally bound to a certain extent.

Hence, option A is correct.

6 0
3 years ago
Third parties suffering from the effects of factory pollution is an example of.....
seraphim [82]
For me i would say the answer is C
I really hope i helped
let me know if it is right!
Have a great day :)
3 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
An investor purchased 100 shares of the cdl growth and income fund 3 years ago when the pop was $12 and the nav was $11.50. all
Norma-Jean [14]

The investor will show a capital loss of $155.

We gather the following information from this question:

Pop of the fund three years ago : $12

NAV of the fund three years ago : $11.50

Current Pop : $11

Current NAV : $10.45

Number of shares : 100 shares.

We need to calculate capital loss or gain on the 100 shares in the mutual fund.

While taking the cost per unit, <u>we need to consider the public-offer-price (pop) into consideration, since an investor can only buy the shares at pop</u>.

Similarly, while selling the shares, the <u>shareholder can liquidate his position by selling back to the mutual fund at the NAV prevailing at the end of the business day</u> on which he wants to sell.

So, the formula to calculate capital gain or loss is:

Capital gain or (loss) = (NAV per unit at liquidation - POP at purchase ) * No. of shares

Capital gain or (loss) = ($10.45 - $12 ) * 100

Capital gain or (loss) = ($155)

3 0
3 years ago
Assume that the reserve ratio is 20% and banks in the system are loaning out all their excess reserve. If people collectively ca
Alex17521 [72]

Answer:

C. decreased by $40 billion

Explanation:

For computing the lending ability, first we have to determine the money multiplier which is shown below:

We know that

Money multiplier = 1 ÷ reserve ratio

                            = 1 ÷ 20%

                            = 5

So, the total cash would be

= $10 billion × $5

= $50 million

Now the lending ability would be

=$50 billion × (1 - 20%)

= $50 billion × 0.80

= $40 billion

6 0
3 years ago
You are considering a savings bond that will pay $ 100 in 9 years. If the interest rate is 1.9 %​, what should you pay today for
Dmitrij [34]

Answer:

You should pay $84.42 today for the​ bond.

Explanation:

bond price = value of bond/[(1 + interest rate)^number of years]

                   = $100/[(1 + 1.9%)^9]

                   = $100/(1.185)

                   = $84.42

Therefore, You should pay $84.42 today for the​ bond.

5 0
3 years ago
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