Answer:
The answer is option (c) Short 34 contracts
Explanation:
Solution:
Given that
The information about the portfolio is as stated below:
The value of the portfolio = $8.5 million
The beta = 1.3
The future contract of S&P price = $1310
The size of contract = 250
Now,
To hedge the risk completely, the desired beta is =0
Thus,
The number of contracts is calculated as follows:
The Number of contract = (desired beta - portfolio beta)*portfolio value/(future price*contract size)
So,
The number of contracts = (0 - 1.3)*8500000/(1310*250) = -34
Then,
The negative sign means it is going short.
Hence,
A total of 340 contracts must be short.
Answer:
$20,800,000
Explanation:
The formula and computation is shown below:
Value of the firm = {(Firm's current profits) × (1 + firm’s opportunity cost of funds)} ÷ (firm’s opportunity cost of funds - constant growth annual rate)
= {($400,000) × (1 + 0.06) ÷ (0.06 - 0.04)
= $424,000 ÷ 0.02
= $21,200,000
Hence, we recognized all the information which is mentioned in the question.
Answer:
$957,349
Explanation:
the market price of the bonds = PV of face value + PV of coupon payments
PV of face value = $1,000,000 / (1.03)¹⁰ = $744,094
PV of coupon payments = $25,000 x 8.5302 (PV annuity factor, 3%, 10 periods) = $213,255
market price of the bonds = $744,094 + $213,255 = $957,349
journal entry to record the issuance of the bonds:
Dr Cash 957,349
Dr Discount on bonds payable 42,651
Cr Bonds payable 1,000,000
Answer:
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Annual deposit= 5,000*1.25= $6,250
n= 35 years
i= 0.08 annual
To calculate the future value of the retirement plan, we need to use the following formula:
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= annual deposit
FV= {6,250*[(1.08^35)-1]}/0.08= }$1,076,980.02
