Answer:
11.68 years
Explanation:
For computing the number of years first we have to applied the NPER formula i.e to be shown in the attachment below:
Given that,
Present value = $11,000
Future value = $19,000
Rate of interest = 6.5%
PMT = $0
The formula is shown below:
= NPER(Rate;PMT;-PV;FV;type)
The present value come in negative
So, after applying the above formula, the number of years is 8.68
Now after 3 years, it would be
= 8.68 + 3
= 11.68 years
Answer:
d. The accept/reject decision depends on the firm's risk-adjustment policy. If Norris' policy is to increase the required return on a riskier-than-average project to 3% over rS, then it should reject the project.
Explanation:
The accept/reject decision depends on the firm's risk-adjustment policy. If Norris' policy is to increase the required return on a riskier-than-average project to 3% over rS, then it should reject the project.
Answer:
Find answers below.
Explanation:
Risk management can be defined as the process of identifying, evaluating, analyzing and controlling potential threats or risks present in a business as an obstacle to its capital, revenues and profits. This ultimately implies that, risk management involves prioritizing course of action or potential threats in order to mitigate the risk that are likely to arise from such business decisions.
Price risk is the risk of a decline in a bond's value due to an increase in interest rates. This risk is higher on bonds that have long maturities than on bonds that will mature in the near future.
Reinvestment risk is the risk that a decline in interest rates will lead to a decline in income from a bond portfolio. This risk is obviously high on callable bonds. It is also high on short-term bonds because the shorter the bond's maturity, the fewer the years before the relatively high old-coupon bonds will be replaced with new low-coupon issues. Which type of risk is more relevant to an investor depends on the investor's investment horizon, which is the period of time an investor plans to hold a particular investment. Longer maturity bonds have high price risk but low reinvestment risk, while higher coupon bonds have a higher level of reinvestment risk and a lower level of price risk. To account for the effects related to both a bond's maturity and coupon, many analysts focus on a measure called duration, which is the weighted average of the time it takes to receive each of the bond's cash flows.
The bonds which would have the largest duration is a 10 year - zero coupon bond.
Answer: true
Explanation:
The term risk free assets are the assets that are secure because they are expected to bring about a return while the Beta is used to know the volatility of a portfolio when it is compared to the entire market.
Risk-free assets typically have zero beta since they're risk free. Therefore, risk-free assets have a beta of 0 and the market portfolio has a beta of 1 is true.
Answer:
3000* (1+ 0.06) (that little 1 at the corner there <)
= $3,180
3,180 - 3000 = $180 first year
180/12 =$15 per month
The formula is
Principal (money borrowed/3000$) times/*/x (1+ rate (0.06) ) to the power of 1
Please correct me if i got it wrong i’m studying this in class too.
Explanation:
