Translate twice a number divided by 6 is 42
1 answer:
You might be interested in
I hope u can understand...
★ Inequalities ★
or n ∈ ( 10 , 11 )
Possible value can be easily obtained by generating an arithmetic mean
Else we've infinite numbers between them ,
According to density property of real numbers , we can have any real number satisfying the given inequality under condition 10 < n < 11
Which is true for infinite possible numbers
10.1 , 10.2 , ... INFINITY
or n ∈ ( 10 , 11 )
Possible value can be easily obtained by generating an arithmetic mean
Else we've infinite numbers between them ,
According to density property of real numbers , we can have any real number satisfying the given inequality under condition 10 < n < 11
Which is true for infinite possible numbers
10.1 , 10.2 , ... INFINITY
Using the Empirical Rule, it is found that:
- a) Approximately 99.7% of the amounts are between $35.26 and $51.88.
- b) Approximately 95% of the amounts are between $38.03 and $49.11.
- c) Approximately 68% of the amounts fall between $40.73 and $46.27.
------------
The Empirical Rule states that, in a <em>bell-shaped </em>distribution:
- Approximately 68% of the measures are within 1 standard deviation of the mean.
- Approximately 95% of the measures are within 2 standard deviations of the mean.
- Approximately 99.7% of the measures are within 3 standard deviations of the mean.
-----------
Item a:
Within <em>3 standard deviations of the mean</em>, thus, approximately 99.7%.
-----------
Item b:
Within 2<em> standard deviations of the mean</em>, thus, approximately 95%.
-----------
Item c:
- 68% is within 1 standard deviation of the mean, so:
Approximately 68% of the amounts fall between $40.73 and $46.27.
A similar problem is given at brainly.com/question/15967965