Answer:
The amount to be repot is $1,450,000
Explanation:
in this question, we are asked to calculate the amount of selling expenses to be recorded in the company’s consolidated income statement for that year.
To answer this question, we employ a mathematical approach;
Mathematically;
Selling expenses = Total expenses - Contra Expenses
from the question, we identify that total expenses is (1,100,000 + 400,000) = $1,500,000
Contra expenses = $50,000
The selling expenses is thus; 1,500,000 - 50,000 = $1,450,000
Complete Question:
The "invisible hand" using Adam Smith's terminology refers to
a. government control of the market.
b. market forces working through the price mechanism.
c. the money supply that serves to keep the economy working smoothly.
d. the role of innovation in maintaining a steady rate of growth.
e. "behind-the-scenes" policy making to influence how markets allocate scarce resources.
Answer:
The "invisible hand" using Adam Smith's terminology refers to Market forces working through the price mechanism.
Explanation:
The invisible hand is the in observable market force, which helps demand and delivers goods automatically to balance in a free market.
Description: In his book ' The Wealth of Nations ' Adam Smith implemented the phrase of the invisible hand.
An invisible hand that defines the processes through which favorable social and economic effects that emerge out of the self-interested behaviors obtained by individuals, who have no intention of producing such results. The term developed by the eighteenth-century British philosopher and economist Adam Smith.
Answer: Option (A) is correct.
Explanation:
It was given that consumer prefers Adidas to puma brand soccer cleats but he buys puma brand soccer cleats. This is only because of the price theory and rational consumer choice. We know that a rational consumer will choose a product with a lower price. Both puma and Adidas brand soccer cleats are substitutes, thus, if the price of puma cleats is lower than the Adidas cleats then he should prefer puma brand soccer cleats.
Answer:
d. Both a and b above are correct.
Explanation:
In the case when the company unadjusted trial balance reflect a debit balance of allowance for doubtful debts so this represent that the company would have more written off account receivable that would be shown in the beginning balance of the allowance. Also the company should record the bad debt expense as more as the debit balance of the non-adjusted allowance
Hence, the last option is correct
