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1 year ago

What is the sharpe ratio (reward-to-variability) of the cal line that joins the risk-free asset and optimal risky asset p?

1 answer:

5 0

In finance, the Sharpe ratio (also known as the Sharpe index, Sharpe measure, or reward-to-volatility ratio) measures the performance of an investment, such as a security or portfolio, compared to a risk-adjusted, risk-free asset. It is defined as the difference between the investment return and the risk-free return divided by the standard deviation of the investment return. It represents the additional return an investor receives for each unit of increased risk.

A Sharpe ratio of 1 is considered good, 2 is considered excellent, and 3 is considered very good. As a guideline, a ratio of 1 or higher is considered good, 2 or higher is very good, and 3 or higher is excellent.

Learn more about the Sharpe ratio here: brainly.com/question/23948730

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Gross Corporation adopted the dollar-value LIFO method of inventory valuation on December 31, 2013. Its inventory at that date w

Murrr4er [49]

Answer: $603,500

Explanation:

Ending inventory in 2014;

= Ending inventory balance 2013 + (( $\frac{Inventory current price 2014}{Price index 2014}$ * 100) - ending inventory 2013)) * Price index 2014/100

= 550,000 + (( $\frac{642,000}{107}* 100$ ) - 550,000)) * 107/100

= $603,500

3 0

2 years ago

Computers Inc. is a United States computer and consumer electronics company that designs and manufactures electronic devices. Co

Galina-37 [17]

No the electronic devices where made to text and easier to text

5 0

3 years ago

The ____ is the amount earned on an investment for a given period of time.

hichkok12 [17]

Answer:

Investment income.

Explanation:

Investment income is income that comes from interest payments, dividends, capital gains collected upon the sale of a security or other assets, and any other profit made through an investment vehicle. Generally, individuals earn most of their total net income each year through regular employment income.

hope this helped broski =))

3 0

3 years ago

Ashley Anderson pays her HOA dues of $660 for the calendar year. She then sells her property and closes on June 15. What is the

Alenkinab [10]

Answer:

The amount of the prepaid portion that is due back to Ashley using the 12 month, 360 day proration is=$362.34

Explanation:

<em>Step 1: Determine HOA per day</em>

Use the expression below to determine HOA per day;

T=H×N

where;

T=total HOA dues per year

H=HOA per day

N=number of days in a year

In our case;

T=$660

H=unknown

N=360 days

Replacing;

660=H×360

360 H=660

H=660/360

H=$1.83 per day

<em>Step 2: Determine amount of HOA that is due back</em>

Using the same expression;

T=H×N

but;

T=unknown

H=$1.83 per day

N=(June, 15 days)+(July, 30)+(Aug, 31)+(Sep. 30)+(Oct 31)+(Nov 30)+(Dec 31)

N=(15+30+31+30+31+30+31)=198 days

Replacing;

T=(1.83×198)=$362.34

The amount of the prepaid portion that is due back to Ashley using the 12 month, 360 day proration is=$362.34

5 0

3 years ago

Even though most corporate bonds in the United States make coupon payments semiannually, bonds issued elsewhere often have annua

max2010maxim [7]

Answer:

Market Price $985.01

Explanation:

We have to convert the US semiannually rate to annually.

$(1 + 0.078/2)^{2} -1 = 0.079521$

Now this is the annual rate spected for a similar US Bonds

So we are going to calculate the present value using this rate.

Present value of an annuity of 78 for 20 years at 7.9521%

$C * \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\$

$78 * \frac{1-(1+0.079521)^{-20} }{0.079521} = PV\\$

PV = 768.55

And we need to add the present value ofthe 1,000 euros at this rate

$\frac{Principal}{(1 + rate)^{time} = Present Value}$

$\frac{1,000}{(1 + 0.079521)^{20} = Present Value }$

Present Value = 216.4602211

Adding those two values together

$985.01

The reasoning behind this is that an american investor will prefer at equal price an US bonds because it compounds interest twice a year over the German Bonds.

6 0

3 years ago