Answer:
S/N ACCOUNT DEBIT CREDIT
1 Equipment $22,000
Cash $22,000
Being payment for new component expected to increase the
equipment’s productivity by 10% a year
2. Equipment Repairs expenses $6,250
Cash $6,250
Being payment for equipment repair
3. Equipment $14,870
Cash $14,870
Being payment for equipment repair to prolong the useful life
the asset
Explanation:
The initial cost incurred in acquiring an asset is debited to asset account, subsequently every other cost spent on the assets are either expenses against the earning of that period or expensed over many years over the useful life of the asset.
Capitalization is the recognition of an expense as an asset in the balance sheet rather than expenses in the income statement.
The payment of $22,000 paid for the equipment productivity must be capitalized, that is added to the cost of the asset because it is a cost that is expected to increase the equipment’s productivity by 10% a year.
The $6,250 paid for normal repair is a revenue items which is to be expensed against the earning of that period.
The $14,870 paid for repairs which will increase the useful life of the equipment from four to five years is a capital expenditure which should capitalized, that is added to the cost of the asset.
Answer:
Enterprise value of Heavy Metal= $1,080.766
Share price = $18.945 per unit
Explanation:
<em>The value of a firm is the present value of the free cash flow discounted at the weighted average cost of capital</em>
Year PV
1 52.1 × 1.14^(-1) = 45.70175439
2 68.6 × 1.14^(-2) = 52.40073869
3 78.6 × 1.14^(-3) = 53.05276117
4 74.4× 1.14^(-4) = 44.05077264
5 81.1 × 1.14^(-5) = 42.12079868
Year and beyond
81.1 × 1.04/(0.14-0.04) = 843.44
Total value = 45.70+ 52.40+53.052
+ 44.050
+42.120+ 843.44
= 1080.766826
Enterprise value of Heavy Metal= $1,080.766
Share price = Total value - Debt value / number of shares
= (1,080.766 - 304 )/ 41 million units= $18.945 per unit
Share price = $18.945 per unit
Answer:
Varies
Explanation:
They can go against natural resources.
Answer:
C) I only.
Explanation:
According to the Uniform Securities Act, A civil case underneath the provisions of the United States must be filed in 3 years of the alleged infringement, or 2 years from the detection of the breach, whatever comes first.
Also, The passing of the consultant or the client doesn't really eliminate a civil liability prima facie case. Waivers to statements agreed to sign by the customer waiving adherence by the consultant with the provisions of this act on which the suit is focused aren't ever legitimate on the examination.
Therefore the option i is correct
Answer:
They should be reported in 2 different parts, first under current liabilities as:
Then under long term liabilities:
- Notes payable expected to be refinanced $1,044,000
Explanation:
the total short term notes payable on December 31 = $1,313,000
- $1,044,000 were paid off by issuing common stocks, so that portion of the debt must be reported as notes payable expected to be refinanced (or refinanced debt)
- the remaining $269,000 which were paid using cash reserves must be reported as current notes payable
