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rewona [7]
3 years ago
6

The NFL Trust is responsible for which of the following activities? A. Ownership of all team logos and trademarks. B. Oversight

and administration of the league's properties rights. C. Distribution of revenue for league properties rights to each club. D. All of these are correct. E. Oversight and administration of the league's properties rights and distribution of revenue for league properties rights to each club.
Business
1 answer:
lana [24]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The correct answer is the option D: All of these are correct.

Explanation:

On the one hand, a "trust" is known in the economics and business field as the partnership between two or more companies that produce in the same industry and therefore that the main objective of this new agreement among the partners is to increase the market area or to take more advantage by working together, increasing both parties revenues.

On the other hand, the NFL trust is known to dominate the market of the football league in all its aspects, including all the teams logos and trademarks as well as the organization of the league's properties rights and the distribution of revenue for those concepts.

You might be interested in
Which of the following describes a self-managed team?A. Workers are trained to do all or most of the jobs in the unit.B. Workers
Oksanka [162]

Answer:

A. Workers are trained to do all or most of the jobs in the unit

Explanation:

A self-managed team is a group of employees that's responsible and accountable for all or most aspects of producing a product or delivering a service. Traditional organizational structures assign tasks to employees depending on their specialist skills or the functional department within which they work

7 0
3 years ago
A process produces two types of products A and B. Product A is done in batches of 1000 units. It involves a setup time of 2 hour
aleksley [76]

Answer:

Explanation:

1. Only product A is produced

40 hours= 40*60*60 = 144,000 seconds

Run time 75 seconds

Setup time 2 hours

Batches= 1000 units

Run time to produce one batch of A = 1000*75sec = 75,000 seconds

Setup time = 2 hours = 7200 seconds

Remaining seconds = 144,000 - (75,000+7200) = 61,800 seconds

Product A manufactured in 61,800 sec = 61,800/75 = 824

Total Product A manufactured are = 1824 units

2. Only product B is produced

40 hours= 40*60*60 = 144,000 seconds

Run time 45 seconds  

Setup time= 1 hour

Batches= 500 units

To produce one batch of A = 500*45sec = 22,500 seconds

Setup time = 6 hours = 6*7200 seconds= 43,200sec

Remaining seconds = 144,000-(22,500+43,200) = 78,300 seconds

Product A manufactured in 78300 sec = 1740

Total Product A manufactured are = 500+1740= 2240 units

3. A and B are produced in a mix of 25% A and 75% B?

Considering loss of 3 hours setup time, 37 hours is left to produce

A is manufactured for = 25% of 37 hours = 9.25 hours = 33300 hours

B is manufactured for = 75% of 37 hours = 27.75 hours = 99900 hours

Production of A = 33300/75 sec= 444 units

Production of B = 99900/45 sec= 2220 units

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
PA11.
NARA [144]

Answer:

Using Traditional allocation method

Allocation rate per unit

=<u> Budgeted overhead</u>

  Budgeted direct labour hours

Brass

Overhead allocation rate

= <u>$47,500</u>

  700 hours

=  $67.86 per direct labour hour

Gold

= <u>$47,500</u>

   1,200 hours

=  $39.58 per direct labour hour

Using activity-based costing

Brass

Allocation rate for material cost pool                                                                                                                                                  

= <u>$12,500</u>

   400

=  $31.25 per material moved

Gold

Allocation rate for material cost pool

= <u>$12,500</u>

   100    

= $125 per material moved

Brass

Allocation rate for machine set-up pool

= <u>$35,000</u>

  400

= $87.50

Gold

Allocation rate for machine set-up pool  

= <u>$35,000</u>

   600

= $58.33                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                

Explanation:

Using traditional allocation method, the overheads for material cost pool and machine set-up pool will be added. The overhead allocation rate per unit is the division of total overhead by the direct labour hours for each product.        

Using activity-based costing, the material cost pool overhead  will be divided by the material moved for each product in order to obtain allocation rate for each product.                                                                                                                                                                

The allocation rate for machine set-up pool is obtained by dividing the machine set-up overhead by the number of machine set-up for each              product.                                                                                      

4 0
3 years ago
QUICK ONE!
never [62]

Answer:

Rate is 1.5 times the straight line depreciation rate which is;

= \frac{80,000}{8}

= $10,000 per year

Rate = \frac{10,000}{80,000} * 100%

=12.5%

Reducing balance rate = 12.5% * 1.5

= 18.75%

The Depreciation Schedule would be;

Year   Beginning Book Value  Depreciation Expense   Accumulated Depreciation   Book Value

1  $80,000  80,000*18.75% = $15,000   $15,000   $65,000

2  $65,000  65,000 * 18.75% = $12,1875.50   $27,187.50   $52,812.50

3  $52,812.50  52,812.5 *18.75% = $9,902.34   $37,187.84   $42,910.16

4  $42,910.16  42,910.16 * 18.75% = $8,045.66   $45,233.50   $34,766.50

5  $34,766.50  34,766.50 * 0.1875 = 6,518.72   $51,752.22   $28,247.78

6  $28,247.78  28,247.78 * 0.1875= $5,296.45   $57,048.67   $22,951.33

7  $22,951.33  22,951.33 * 0.1875= 4,403.37   $61,452.04   $18,547.96

8  $18,547.96  18,547.96 * 0.1875 = $3,477.74    $80,000   $0

   $3,477.74 + 15,070.22= $18,574.96      

Depreciation for the last year was not sufficient to take the truck to $0 so the remainder will be depreciated in that year so that it may be completely depreciated.

3 0
3 years ago
particle has a constant acceleration of 5.8 m/s2. (Due to the nature of this problem, do not use rounded intermediate values in
vova2212 [387]

Answer:

a) t = 0.86 sec

b) v = 7.128 m/s

Explanation:

Given data:

Constant acceleration = 5.8 m/s^2

Initial velocity = 2.1 m/s

Displacement = 4.0 m

kinematic equation is given as

X -X_o = v_o \times t + \frac{1}{2} at^2

X- X_o =  4.0 m

v = 2.1 m/s

a = 5.8 m/s^2

plugging all value in the above relation

4 =  2.1t + \frac{1}{2} 5.8t^2

2.9t^2 + 2.1t - 4 = 0

solve for t

t = \frac{-2 \pm \sqrt{2.1^2 -(4\times 2.9 \times (-4)}}{2\times 2.9}

t = 0.86 sec

b)  kinematic equation relating to velocity is given as

v = v_0 + at

solving for velocity

v = 2.1 + 5..8\times 0.867

v = 7.128 m/s

5 0
3 years ago
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