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zubka84 [21]
3 years ago
13

Failing to respond to the needs of internal customers will diminish the confidence these users have in purchasing, and they may

try to negotiate contracts themselves (a practice known as _____).
Business
1 answer:
Solnce55 [7]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The correct answer is Maverick buying.

Explanation:

Maverick, is a wayward, a dissident, a rebel, someone who refuses to abide by the rules or resists joining a group. The term originates from Samuel A. Maverick (1803-1870), a Texas rancher, who refused to mark his cattle.

The "maverick buying", refers to purchases out of contract or channels established by an organization. For example, the Corporate Supply department negotiates a competitive price for certain particular models of laptops with a distributor. Days later, someone from the Human Resources department requests the purchase of a much more expensive model, for which a discount has not been negotiated.

Another example: traveling in an airline and staying in a hotel other than those with which the company has signed agreements.

The impact of bypassing the preferred purchasing channels and systems can vary from operational inefficiency, to missing out on the advantages of corporate contract negotiation, large fines and even jail time.

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Trull Company uses a standard cost system. Variable overhead costs are allocated based on direct labor hours. In the first​ quar
ki77a [65]

Answer:

C. The actual variable overhead costs were lower than the budgeted costs.

Explanation:

Variable Overhead Cost variance =Budgeted cost - Actual Cost

where this value is positive, this is favorable, where this is negative it is unfavorable.

Actual cost = Actual hours X Actual rate per hour

Budgeted Cost = Budgeted hours for actual level of production X Budgeted rate per hour

Even if actual hours are lower than budgeted it will not lead to favorable overhead as actual rate per hour might be less.

Total variable overhead will only be favorable when net actual variable overhead cost is less than budgeted variable overhead costs.

C. The actual variable overhead costs were lower than the budgeted costs.

6 0
3 years ago
Freeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeee
ivann1987 [24]

Answer:

thank youuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuu

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
In three years, when he is discharged from the Air Force, Steve wants to buy an 8,000 power boat.
eduard

Steve will get $11360 with the process of simple interest.

<h3>what is simple interest?</h3>

Simple interest is calculated based on a loan's principal or the initial deposit into a savings account. Simple interest doesn't compound, therefore a creditor will only charge interest on the principal sum, and a borrower will never be required to pay further interest on the interest that has already accrued.

Rate of interest = 14%

principal + interest = $8000

Time = 3 years

Simple interest

=\frac{8000 \times 3 \times 14}{100}\\=3360

Now principal + interest = 8000+3360 = 11360

Therefore, Steve will get $11360.

To learn more about simple interest from the given link

brainly.com/question/25793394

#SPJ4

4 0
2 years ago
Who is better off: a person using credit cards or a person refraining from any loans?
PIT_PIT [208]
<span>Who is better off: a person using credit cards or a person refraining from any loans? A person using credit cards is better off </span>from a person refraining from any loans. A person using credit can often purchase more and have more flexibility with their money over someone who only uses cash. There are items and services that do not take cash as a form of payment, so without a credit card the person can not make the purchase. 
3 0
3 years ago
Fama’s Llamas has a weighted average cost of capital of 10.9 percent. The company’s cost of equity is 12 percent, and its pretax
mojhsa [17]

Answer:

0.2

Explanation:

The weighted average cost of capital (WACC) is calculated as below:

WACC = (D/A) x r_D x (1-t) + (E/A) x r_E , where:

A: Market value of company asset;

D: Market value of company debt;

E: Market value of company equity;

r_D: pre-tax cost of debt;

r_E: cost of equity;

t: tax rate

Rearrange above formula a bit, we get:

WACC = (D/A) x r_D x (1-t) + (1 - D/A) x r_E

Putting all the numbers together, we have:

10.9% = (D/A) x 8.9% x (1 - 38%) + (1 - D/A) x 12%

Solve the equation, we get D/A = 17% or D/E = 0.2

So, target debt−equity ratio is 0.2

4 0
3 years ago
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