The answer is unlikely, there is a 2 out of 30 percent chance.
Answer:
a solution is 1/2 *tan⁻¹ (2*y) = - tan⁻¹ (x²) + π/4
Step-by-step explanation:
for the equation
(1 + x⁴) dy + x*(1 + 4y²) dx = 0
(1 + x⁴) dy = - x*(1 + 4y²) dx
[1/(1 + 4y²)] dy = [-x/(1 + x⁴)] dx
∫[1/(1 + 4y²)] dy = ∫[-x/(1 + x⁴)] dx
now to solve each integral
I₁= ∫[1/(1 + 4y²)] dy = 1/2 *tan⁻¹ (2*y) + C₁
I₂= ∫[-x/(1 + x⁴)] dx
for u= x² → du=x*dx
I₂= ∫[-x/(1 + x⁴)] dx = -∫[1/(1 + u² )] du = - tan⁻¹ (u) +C₂ = - tan⁻¹ (x²) +C₂
then
1/2 *tan⁻¹ (2*y) = - tan⁻¹ (x²) +C
for y(x=1) = 0
1/2 *tan⁻¹ (2*0) = - tan⁻¹ (1²) +C
since tan⁻¹ (1²) for π/4+ π*N and tan⁻¹ (0) for π*N , we will choose for simplicity N=0 . hen an explicit solution would be
1/2 * 0 = - π/4 + C
C= π/4
therefore
1/2 *tan⁻¹ (2*y) = - tan⁻¹ (x²) + π/4
Answer:
16 mls of the 75% solution and 20 mls of the 0.57% solution.
Step-by-step explanation:
Set up a system of equations:
Let x = volume of 75% solution and y be volume of 57% solution
0.75x + 0.57y = 36*0.65
0.75x + 0.57y = 23.4.......(1)
x + y = 36.........(2)
From equation (2):
y = 36 - x
Substituting this into equation(1):
0.75x + (0.57(36 - x) = 23.4
0.75x + 20.52 - 0.57x = 23.4
0.18x = 23.40 - 20.52 = 2.88
x = 2.88/0.18
x = 16
so from equation (2): y = 36-16 = 20.
Answer:
(-9,-7)
Step-by-step explanation:
(x,y)—>(-x,-y)
(9,7)—>(-(9),-(7))=(-9,-7)
