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yulyashka [42]
3 years ago
7

Which one of the following is a means by which shareholders can replace company management? Multiple Choice Stock options Promot

ion Sarbanes-Oxley Act Agency play Proxy fight
Business
1 answer:
Katena32 [7]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Proxy Fight

Explanation:

Proxy fight refers to that scenario wherein a group of shareholders coming together so as to gain more shareholder proxies and thus gain majority of the votes.

In such cases, outsiders convince the existing shareholders of a corporation to vote against the management and thus collectively lead to it's replacement.

This represents one of the common means of corporate takeover.

Disgruntled shareholders may unite against a management decision or any sort of oppressive policies by such means, usurp the existing management and appoint their own preferred candidates as their replacement.

You might be interested in
Three contractors (call them a, b, and
patriot [66]

Answer:  The probabilities of winning a contract are

P(A) = \frac{28}{36}  

P(B) = \frac{7}{36}  

P(C) = \frac{1}{36}


Let the Probability of C winning the contract - P(C) be 'X'

Then,

Probability of B winning the contract - P(B) will be '7X'     and

Probability of A winning the contract - P(A) will be \mathbf{P(A) = 4 * P(B) = 4*7X = 28X}

Since the total of all the probabilities is 1,

\mathbf{P(A) + P(B) + P(C) =1}

\mathbf{28X + 7X + X =1}

\mathbf{36X =1}

\mathbf{X =\frac{1}{36}}

So,

P(A) = \frac{28}{36}

P(B) = \frac{7}{36}

P(C) = \frac{1}{36}

4 0
3 years ago
If Wild Widgets, Inc., were an all-equity company, it would have a beta of 0.9. The company has a target debt-equity ratio of .4
Veronika [31]

Answer:

a. 6.5%

b. 13.06%

c. 10.91%

Explanation:

a.

Cost of debt of a bond is yield to maturity. Yield to maturity is the rate of return that a investor actually receives or a borrows actually pays on a bond. It is long term return or payment which is expressed in annual term.

Formula for yield to maturity is as follow

Yield to maturity = [ C + ( F - P ) / n ] / [ (F + P ) / 2 ]

By placing values in the formula

Assuming the bond face value is $1,000

Yield to maturity = [ (1000x7.2) + ( 1,000 - $1,090 ) / 20 ] / [ ( 1,000 + $1,090 ) / 2 ]

Yield to maturity = [ $72 + ( 1,000 - $1,090 ) / 20 ] / $1,045

Yield to maturity = [ $72 - $4.5 ] / $1,045

Yield to maturity = $67.5 / $1,045

Yield to maturity = 6.5%

So, the cost of Debt is 6.5%

b.

As 0.9 is the unlevered beta, We need Levered beta due to restructuring of capital.

Beta Levered = Beta Unlevered x ( 1 + ( 1 - tax rate ) x Debt / Equity)

Beta Levered = 0.9 x ( 1 + ( 1 - 0.35 ) x 0.4 )

Beta Levered = 1.134

Cost of equity can be calculated using CAPM

CAPM calculated the expected return on an equity investment based on the risk free rate, market premium and risk beta of the investment.

Formula for CAPM is as follow

Expected return = Risk free Rate + Beta ( Market premium)

As we know the Risk premium is the difference of market return and risk free rate.

Expected return = Risk free Rate + Beta ( Market Return - Risk free Rate )

Ra = Rf + β ( Rm - Rf )

Ra = 4.1% + 1.134 ( 12% - 4.1% )

Ra = 13.06%

Cost of Equity is 13.06%

c.

WACC is the average cost of capital of the firm based on the weightage of the debt and weightage of the equity multiplied to their respective costs.

According to WACC formula

WACC = ( Cost of equity x Weightage of equity )+ ( Cost of debt ( 1- t) x Weightage of debt )

Placing the values in formula

If the debt to equity 0.4  the equity value should be 1 and total capital is 1.4 ( 1 + 0.4 )

WACC = ( 13.06% x 1 / 1.4 )+ ( 6.5% ( 1- 0.35) x 0.4 / 1.4 ) = 9.71% + 1.2% = 10.91%

WACC is 10.91%

4 0
2 years ago
One of two methods must be used to produce expansion anchors. Method A costs $80,000 initially and will have a $15,000 salvage v
kaheart [24]

Answer:

Method b

Explanation:

Present worth can be calculated using a financial calculator

For method A ,

Cash flow in year 0 = $80,000

Cash flow in year 1 and 2 = $30,000

Cash flow in year 3 = $30,000 - $15,000 = $15,000

I = 12%

Present worth = $141,378.23

For method B,

Cash flow in year 0 = $120,000

Cash flow in year 1 and 2 = $8, 000

Cash flow in year 3 = $8,000 - $40,000 = $-32,000

I = 12%

Present worth = $110,743.44

Method b would is chosen because it worth less.

To find the present worth using a financial calacutor:

1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.

2. After inputting all the cash flows, press the NPV button, input the value for I, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.

3. Press compute

4 0
3 years ago
An individual employed part-time at a retail store that schedules her based on the busiest times and days throughout the year, w
kykrilka [37]

Answer: contingent

                         

Explanation: It refers to the employment in which the job of an individual is not fixed with the company. In case of contingent employment, the employees are usually hired when there is a specific project to complete that needs extra work force.

Unlike seasonal employment the these employments are non recurring and there is no time fixed for employment that an individual could expect.

Thus, from the above we can conclude that the given case is an example of contingent employment.

8 0
3 years ago
Mune Company recorded journal entries for the payment of $50,000 of dividends, the $32,000 increase in accounts receivable for s
nalin [4]

Answer:

Decrease of $18,000

Explanation:

As there is a payment of dividend so it would reduce the stockholder equity by $50,000

And, there is an increase in account receivable for rendering the service that means the service revenue would increased so the stockholder equity would increased by $32,000

Now the net effect would be

= -$50,000 + $32,000

= -$18,000

5 0
2 years ago
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