Answer:
Employee wellness program
Explanation:
Based on the offerings, Connor has introduced an employee wellness program by making available a set of communications, activities, and facilities designed to change health-related behaviors in ways that reduce health risks and subsequent medical costs.
An employee wellness program which are undertaken by employers focuses on improving specific health risks, such as high blood pressure, high cholesterol levels, smoking, and obesity.
Top; First-line; Middle Managers
Airbus’ decision to compete head-to-head with Boeing by developing the a330 and a340 was made by TOP managers. FIRST-LINE managers then executed these plans by producing the aircraft on the factory floor. These production managers were supervised by MIDDLE managers.
TOP MANAGERS: The entire organization must be under the authority and supervision of top-level management.
MIDDLE MANAGERS: Middle-level managers are in charge of carrying out organizational plans that adhere to corporate policies. They serve as a link between top-level and lower-level management.
FIRST-LINE MANAGERS: A manager who works closely with people at the lowest level of an organization.
Top; First-line; Middle Managers
To learn more about Levels of Management or Types of Managers, visit the following link:
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$43,000
To avoid paying PMI, you need to pay a minimum 20% down payment.
.2*215,000 = 43,000
Answer:
Q1. Answer is B
Explanation: FV= PV(1+r)n
FV= 10,000(1+0.08)26
FV= 73,963.53
FV= 73,963.53(1+0.05)12
FV=132,827.88
Q2. Answer is D
Explanation: The lenght of time she has to wait to reach her goal is directly related to the interest rate she earns
Q3. Answer is A
Explanation: Interest as the interest rate decreases
Q4. Answer is D
Explanation: A = P(1 + rt)
A= 15,000(1+0.05*12)
A= 15,000(1.6)
A= 24,000
Q5. Answer is C
Explanation: FV= PV(1+r)n
FV= 5000(1+0.06)15
FV=5000(2.396558193)
FV=11,982.79
FV=11,982.79(1+0.1)30
FV=11,982.79(17.44940226888)
FV=209,092.54
Explanation: FV= PV(1+r)n
FV= 5000(1+0.1)15
FV=5000(4.1772481694)
FV=20,886.24
FV=20,886.24(1+0.06)30
FV=20,886.24(5.7434911729)
FV=119,959.94
Q6. Answer is A
Explanation: Interest on interest $2,481.25
Q7. Answer is A
Explanation: FV= PV(1+r)n
25,000=PV(1+0.065)6
25,000=PV(1.4591422165))
PV=25,000/1.4591422165
PV=17,133.35
Answer:
The present value of the cash flows is $ 786.
Explanation:
This problem requires us to calculate present value of cash flows given in the question. The present value can be calculated by discounting cash flows using interest rate (5%) as discount factor.
PV= (190* (1+5%)^-1)+(390* (1+5%)^-2)+(290* (1+5%)^-3)
PV = 181 + 354 + 251
PV = $ 786
(Discount factor = CF (1+interest rate)^-period)
