Answer:
Journal entries for the transactions are given below
Explanation:
1. Development of new product
DEBIT CREDIT
Research and development $24,000
Cash $24,000
2. Paid the plaintiff for losing patent
DEBIT CREDIT
Legal fee (expense) $8,000
Cash $8,000
3. Bought Equipment and signed non-interest bearing note
DEBIT CREDIT
Equipment Cash price $37,000
Discount on note payable $5,000
Cash paid $18,000
Note payable $24,000
4. Installed sprinkler system
DEBIT CREDIT
Sprinkler system $40,000
Cash $40,000
5. Plaintiff paid for successful infringement suit on its patent
DEBIT CREDIT
Patent $24,000
Cash $24,000
6. Bought New equipment and traded old one
DEBIT CREDIT
New Equipment $13,600
Accumulated depreciation $6,800
Loss on sale $3,400
Old Equipment $13,400
Cash $10,400
Working:
Accumulated depreciation = Original Cost - book value
Accumulated depreciation = $13,400 - $6,600
Accumulated depreciation = $6,800
The right answer for the question that is being asked and shown above is that: "corporate bonds."The cash flows for a perpetuity continue into the future indefinitely. An example of a perpetuity is: <span>corporate bonds</span>
Answer: a reduction in safety stock and/or lead time
Explanation:
Kanban is a visual system that is used for the management of work as the work moves through a process. It should be noted that it is a concept that tells one what to produce, quantity to produce and when to produce it.
A reduction in the number of kanbans (given a constant container size) requires a reduction in safety stock and/or lead time.
Answer:
Explanation:
Annual worth: this will be the annuity payment equivalent to all the cashflow of the investment. Thus the PMT of the net present value
Cash Investment at F0: <em>230,000/2 = 115,000</em>
present value of 7,500 salvage value:
Maturity 7,500.00
time 7 years
MARR: 10% = 0.1
PV <em> 3,848.69 </em>
<u>Then, we need to calculate the present value of the loan discounted at 10%</u>
half the investment is finance: 230,000 / 2 = <em>115,000</em>
Then, this capitalize 2 year at 8% before the first payment:
Principal 115,000.00
time 2 year
MARR: 10% = 0.08000
Amount 134,136.00
Now we need to discount this loan at 10% which is our rate of return:
Maturity 134,136.00
time 2.00
MARR: 10% = 0.1
PV <em>110,856.20 </em>
Finally: we add this values to get the resent worth:
<em>115,000 + 110,856.20 - 3,848.69 = </em><em>222,007.51</em>
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Last step, we calculate the PMT of the present worth:
PV 222,007.51
time 7 years
MARR: 10% = 0.1
C $ 45,601.564
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Answer:
A. Net margins, debt leverage, and asset turnover.
Explanation:
ROE = (Net income / sales) x (sales / total assets) x (total assets / shareholders equity)
I hope my answer helps you
