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3 years ago

A post-closing trial balance:

Business

1 answer:

OLEGan [10]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

Answer is option C, i.e. is a list of all accounts and their balances after closing entries.

Explanation:

A post-closing trial balance is the third and last type of trial balance that contains a list of all the accounts that have been created and also all the balances even after the closing entry has been made. This is made after the closing entries have been made in the journal and posted to the ledger.

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Jones Company allocates manufacturing overhead based on machine hours. Each chair produced should require 3 machine hours. Accor

mars1129 [50]

Answer:

the fixed manufacturing overhead allocation rate is $7 per hour

Explanation:

The computation of the fixed manufacturing overhead allocation rate is shown below;

Fixed manufacturing overhead allocation rate is

= Budgeted Fixed overhead ÷ Budgeted allocation base

= $8,400 ÷ 1,200 budgeted machine hours

= $7.00 per hour

Hence, the fixed manufacturing overhead allocation rate is $7 per hour

6 0

3 years ago

Bond interest is deducted from:

nevsk [136]

I bond interest is calculated using so-called composite rates based on a fixed interest rate and an inflation-adjusted rate, which we describe in depth below. I bonds earn interest monthly, though you don't get access to the interest payments until you cash out the bond.

<h3>How long do I bonds earn interest?</h3>

I bonds earn interest for 30 years unless you cash them first. You can cash them after one year.

But if you cash them before five years, you lose the previous three months of interest.

<h3>Is an I bond a good investment?</h3>

The annualized rate on the I bond is a record 9.62% through October 2022. “This is a fabulous investment,” said Orman, who started investing in I bonds in 2001. Backed by the U.S. government, the bond doesn't lose value. Its variable rate is set every May and November.

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3 0

1 year ago

The measure of systematic risk is called ________.

Lorico [155]

The measure of systematic risk is called <u>beta</u>.

The answer is option c.

Beta is the same old CAPM measure of systematic hazard. It gauges the tendency of the go back of protection to transport in parallel with the return of the inventory market as an entire. One manner to consider beta is as a gauge of a protection's volatility relative to the marketplace's volatility.

Systematic risk is a part of the total risk this is caused by factors beyond the control of a specific company or individual. Systematic risk is caused by elements that are outside to the organization. All investments or securities are situations to systematic hazard and, therefore, it's far a non-diversifiable chance.

To measure a monetary firm's contribution to systemic hazard includes measuring the company's expected capital shortfall in a crisis. This right away offers the regulator with a quantifiable degree of the relative significance of a firm's contribution to ordinary systemic chance.

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1 year ago

Based on the circular flow of business, what are two ways that households impact the economy? A) They provide wages and products

bonufazy [111]

Answer:

D. They provide the four factors of production and spend money on the product market.

Explanation:

In circular flow of business, all the players namely; household, government agencies, firms and others in an economy have an important role to play.

The level of a nation's employment status, price level and income are determined as a result of various interactions among firms/businesses, household and government agencies.

When a unit spends money, it becomes the income of another unit. Household goes to market with their monies to buy goods and services, while firms goes to the factor market to buy the resources, which are owned by the household, to produce the goods and services.

As for the government agencies, they collect taxes on the goods and services produced and on income(both household and firms) . Government also buys goods and services inorder to produce specialize goods.

Through these interactions, money and business changes hands from the household to the firm and then to government. It goes back to the household and the list goes on and on.

7 0

3 years ago

a perpetual bond with a par value of $1,000 and a semiannual coupon has a yield to maturity of 5.20% and a current price of $1,0

ycow [4]

Rate = 5.2% / 2 = 2.6%

Price = Semi annual coupon / Yield

1,055 = Semi annual coupon / 0.026

Semi annual coupon = 27.43

Annual coupon = 27.43 * 2 = 54.86

Current yield = (Coupon / price) * 100

Current yield = (54.86 / 1,055) * 100

Current yield = 5.20%

A perpetual bond, also regarded colloquially as a perpetual or perp, is a bond without a maturity date, consequently allowing it to be handled as equity, not as debt. Issuers pay coupons on perpetual bonds all the time, and they no longer ought to redeem the most important. Perpetual bond coin flows are, consequently, the ones of perpetuity.

A perpetual bond is a bond not using a maturity date that isn't always redeemable however can pay a regular circulate of interest for all time.

Maturity or maturity date is the date on which the very last fee is due on a loan or other financial device, consisting of a bond or term deposit, at which factor the major is because of being paid. Most devices have a hard and fast maturity date which is a particular date on which the device matures.

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1 year ago