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exis [7]
3 years ago
14

The shape of Spain's production possibilities frontier (PPF) should reflect the fact that as Spain produces more digital cameras

and fewer camcorders, the opportunity cost of producing each additional digital camera _________.
Business
1 answer:
Vilka [71]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Remain constant.

Explanation:

As Spain produces more digital cameras and fewer camcorders, the opportunity cost of producing each additional digital camera <u>remain constant. </u>

Production possibility frontier is a curve that show how different combination of product are produced using limited resources. It demonstrate that how production of one goods need to be decreased to produce higher number of other goods.  

Opportunity cost is constant, as tradeoffs are the same regardless of where you are on the line, same slope at any point.

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All Rite Manufacturing reported the​ following:
Nikitich [7]
I think the answer is c
3 0
3 years ago
An asset falling under the MACRS five-year class was purchased three years ago for $200,000 (its original depreciation basis). C
Nitella [24]

Answer:

(a) The cash flows is $59,040.

(b) The cash flows is $71,040.

Explanation:

From the  Modified Accelerated Cost Recovery System (MACRS) Tables, the depreciation rates for the first 3 years for an asset falling under the MACRS five-year class are 20%, 32% and 19.2%. Therefore, we have:

Accumulated depreciation rate = 20% + 32% + 19.2% = 71.20%

Accumulated depreciation = Cost of the asset * Accumulated depreciation rate =  $200,000 * 71.20% = $142,400

Net book value of the asset = Cost of the asset - Accumulated depreciation = $200,000 - $142,400 = $57,600

We can now proceed as follows:

(a) Calculate the cash flows if the asset is sold now at $60,000

Capital gains = Sales proceeds - Net book value = $60,000 - $57,600 = $2,400

Capital gains tax = Capital gains * Tax rate = $2,400 * 40% = $960

Net sales proceeds = Sales proceeds - Capital gains tax = $60,000 - $960 = $59,040

Therefore, the cash flows is $59,040 net sales proceeds.

(b) Calculate the cash flows if the asset is sold now at $80,000

Capital gains = Sales proceeds - Net book value = $80,000 - $57,600 = $22,400

Capital gains tax = Capital gains * Tax rate = $22,400 * 40% = $8,960

Net sales proceeds = Sales proceeds - Capital gains tax = $80,000 - $8,960 = $71,040

Therefore, the cash flows is $71,040 net sales proceeds.

3 0
3 years ago
Tanner-UNF Corporation acquired as a long-term investment $240million of 6% bonds, dated July 1, on July 1, 2018. The marketinte
horrorfan [7]

Answer:

Journal Entry

01 July Debit Investment $240 million Credit Bank $200 million Credit Discount on investment $40 million

31 Dec Debit Bank $7,2 Million Debit Discount on Bond $0.8 million Credit Interest Income $8 million

Debit Fair Value loss on investment $30 million Credit Investment $30 million

Explanation:

Interest is received semiannually

6%/2 = 3%

interest = $240 million * 3% =7,200,000

8%/2 = 4%

Interest market $200 million * 4% =8,000,000

Fair value loss = 240 million - 210 million

                        = 30 million loss because cost is greater than fair value

8 0
3 years ago
If two individuals are licensed in the same line with two different companies join together to sell a policy, the commission can
NISA [10]
<h3><u>Answer:</u></h3>

The commission can be shared between the two agents.

<h3><u>Explanation:</u></h3>

Many times different companies collaborate with each other to sell a particular policy to maximize their profits. When there are two agents licensed in the same line and when the two companies collaborate to sell a policy then the commission is shared  between the agents.

This is because they will work together for the profits and that when the two companies collaborate they become one to sell the policy. The agents work together and the commission is given to them as a whole. This is a common practice when two companies work together.

4 0
3 years ago
Marshall Inc. recently hired your consulting firm to improve the company's performance. It has been highly profitable but has be
dezoksy [38]

Answer:

148.02 days

Explanation:

The computation of the cash conversion cycle is shown below:

As we know that

Cash conversion cycle is = Days inventory outstanding + days sale outstanding - days payable outstanding

where,

Number of days inventory outstanding is

= Average inventory ÷ cost of goods sold per day

= $75000 ÷ ($360,000 ÷ 365 days)

= 76.04 days

Number of days sales outstanding is

= Average account receivable ÷ Average sales per day

= $160,000 ÷ ($600,000 ÷ 365)

= 97.33 days

And, the number of days payable outstanding is

= Average accounts payable ÷ cost pf goods sold per day

= $25,000 ÷ ($360,000 ÷ 365)

= 25.35 days

So, the cash conversion cycle is

= 76.04 days + 97.33 days - 25.35 days

= 148.02 days

3 0
3 years ago
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