Answer:
The Current account is for goods and services.
The Financial account is for exchange of currencies and financial assets across countries.
Miguel, a U.S. resident, buys an HDTV set for $2,500 and sends it to Mexico as a gift to his parents. <u>DEBIT CURRENT ACCOUNT. CREDIT CURRENT ACCOUNT. </u>
Miguel buys the good in the U.S. and then sends it so this falls under the current account alone.
Arielle, a French tourist, stays at a hotel in San Francisco and pays $400 for it with her debit card issued by a French bank. <u>DEBIT FINANCIAL ACCOUNT. CREDIT CURRENT ACCOUNT. </u>
The Financial account should be debited to show that currency is coming into the U.S. from outside the country and current account should be credited for services rendered.
A U.S. computer manufacturer purchases hard drives from a Korean company, paying the funds from its bank account in Korea. <u>DEBIT CURRENT ACCOUNT. CREDIT FINANCIAL ACCOUNT. </u>
Current account should be debited to reflect that goods are coming into the country but the financial account should be credited to show that currency is leaving the ownership of an American entity so it is passing out of American hands.
Answer:
EOQ= 300 units
Annual ordering cost= $3750
Annual holding cost =$3750
Re-order point =100 units
Explanation:
The Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) is the order size that minimizes the balance of ordering cost and holding cost. At the EOQ, the carrying cost is equal to the holding cost.
It is computed using he formulae below
EOQ = √ (2× Co× D)/Ch
EOQ = √ (2× 75× 15,000)/25
EOQ = 300 units
Annual holding cost
= EOQ/2 × holding cost per unit
= 300/2 × $25
=$3750
Annual ordering cost
= Annul demand/EOQ × ordering cost per order
=( 15,000/300)× $75
= $3750
Re-order Point
Maximum consumption × maximum lead time
=( 15,000/300)× 2 = 100 units
True. One reason to use a predetermined overhead rate is to eliminate the effect of seasonal factors.
<h3>What is a predetermined overhead rate?</h3>
This is the term that is used to refer to the allocation rate that is used in the determination of the estimated cost of the manufacturing overhead. It is used to show in either the order of the product or that of the job.
Hence based on this question we can say that it is true because the reason to use a predetermined overhead rate is to eliminate the effect of seasonal factors.
Read more on overhead rate here: brainly.com/question/13312583
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Answer:
17%
Explanation:
To calculate this, we use the weighted average cost of capital (WACC) as follows:
Total capital = 15 + 5 = 20
Weight of equity = 15/20 = 0.75, or 75%
Weight of debt = 5/20 = 0.25, or 25%
WACC = (20% × 75%) + (8% × 25%) = 17%
Therefore, the company's cost of capital is 17%.
Answer:
Alternative 2
Explanation:
Because it has a higher profit of $127,500
