Answer:
See proof below
Step-by-step explanation:
If we consider 2 PM as hour 0, then 10 minutes later would be hour 1/6 (since 10 minutes equals 1/6 hours).
If V(t) is the speed at hour t, because of the Mean Value Theorem, there exists a point c in [0, 1/6] such that
But
V(0) = 30 m/h and V(1/6) = 50 m/h, hence
Since <em>V'(c) is the acceleration at hour c</em>, the proof is complete.
nothing lol
Step-by-step explanation:
I'm not going to help you lol lol
Answer:
6
Step-by-step explanation:
it would have six figuring it had equal amounts of shorts bit if you have ratio of 1 pink shorts and the store had 7 than it would have had 8 so then you just put 8 and take away 2 and that leaves you with six