Answer:
$3,160
Explanation:
Depreciation is the systematic allocation of the cost of an asset to the income statement over the estimated useful life of that asset.
It is determined as the depreciable value of the asset over the estimated useful life of the asset where the depreciable value is the difference between the cost and salvage value of the asset
.
Given that Williams Company purchased a machine costing $28,300 and is depreciating it over a 10-year estimated useful life with a residual value of $3,300,
Annual depreciation
= ($28,300 - $3,300)/10
= $2,500
At the beginning of the eighth year, a major overhaul on it was completed at a cost of $8,300,
Net book value at the beginning of the eighth year (before overhauling)
= $28,300 - 7($2,500)
= $10,800
Capitalizing the overhaul cost,
Net book value at the beginning of the eighth year (after overhauling)
= $10,800 + $8,300
= $19,100
Given that the total estimated useful life was changed to 12 years with the residual value unchanged,
Depreciation for the eighth year
= ($19,100 - $3,300)/5
= $15,800/5
= $3,160
Answer:
$0 stock basis; $10,000 debt basis
$1,000 (original stock basis) + $4,000 ordinary income − $7,000 distribution = $0 stock basis and a $2,000 distribution in excess of stock basis generating $2,000 of capital gain. Debt basis is not reduced by distributions.
Explanation:
Answer:
The correct choice is C)
The most logical thing to do would be to calculate the value of the stock in 5 years time.
Explanation:
This speaks to ones understanding of dividend growth stock valuation models. These tools are used to establish a fair value for a stock by discounting the present value of its future dividends. A commonly used model is the constant growth dividend discount model.
The formula for the DDM, which assumes constant growth in dividends, is provided below.
P0 = D1/(r-g)
Where,
P0 = intrinsic value of stock
D1 = dividend payment one year from today
r = discount rate
g = growth rate
Identifying the correct answer entails establishing a timeline of the expected cash flows. We are given the following information:
t0 = $0
t1 = $0
t2 = $0
t3 = $0
t4 = $0
t5 = $0.20
t6 = $0.20 * 1.035
Given a rate of return, we could use the constant growth dividend discount model to establish the fair value of the firm at t5 (five years from today). Incidentally, to determine today's value, we'd discount it back another five years.
Based on the information above, we are able to prove that the answer is '5'.
Cheers!
<span>asset turnover ratio is the ratio of the value of a company's sales or revenues generated relative to the value of its assets. The Asset Turnover ratio can often be used as an indicator of the efficiency with which a company is deploying its assets in generating revenue.
Given that the sales is 60k and the value of the asset is 370k, the ratio is simply the sales / value of assets which is 60/(370-88).</span>
Answer:
<u>Record the issuance of note.
</u>
November 1, 2021
Dr. Cash 46000
Cr. Note Payable 46000
<u>Record the adjustment for interest.</u>
December 31, 2021
Dr. Interest Expense 460
Cr. Interest Payable 460
(46000*6%)*3/12 = 460
<u>Record the repayment of the note at maturity</u>
Dr. Note Payable 46000
Dr. Interest Payable 460
Dr. Interest Expense 230
Cr. Cash 46,690
(46000*6%)*1/12 = 230
Explanation:
* At the year end the interest expense is accrued and recorded as interest payable.
