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nydimaria [60]
4 years ago
13

Bend Company uses the allowance method to account for uncollectible receivables. At the beginning of the​ year, Allowance for Ba

d Debts had a credit balance of $ 900. During the year Bend wrote off uncollectible receivables of $ 2 comma 200. Bend recorded Bad Debts Expense of $ 3 comma 400. Bend's ​year-end balance in Allowance for Bad Debts is $ 2 comma 100. Bend's ending balance of Accounts Receivable is $ 19 comma 800. Compute the net realizable value of Accounts Receivable at​ year-end.
Business
1 answer:
Len [333]4 years ago
4 0

Answer:

$17,700

Explanation:

The computation of the net realizable value of Accounts Receivable at​ year-end is shown below:

= Ending balance of Accounts Receivable - year-end balance in Allowance for Bad Debts

= $19,800 - $2,100

= $17,700

Simply we deducted the year-end balance in Allowance for Bad Debts from the ending balance of accounts receivable and the same is presented in the currents asset side of the balance sheet.

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Your friend decides that he needs to receive a retirement payment of 70,000 dollars per year from a retirement fund that is proj
damaskus [11]

Answer:

Explanation:

This is an Ordinary Annuity question. You can solve this using a financial calculator. I'm using (TI BA II Plus)

N; duration = 20

I/Y ; interest rate per year = 8.5%

PMT ; recurring annual payment = 70,000

FV; Future value = 0 (In solving annuities, use 0 if not given)

then CPT PV = ?

PV = 662,433.563

Therefore, your friend needs to have $662,433.56

7 0
3 years ago
The current sections of Birmingham Inc.’s balance sheets at December 31, 2019 and 2020, are presented here. Birmingham’s net
jekas [21]

Answer:

Net Income 193,000

Non-monetary terms:

Depreciation expense    25,000

amortization expense       10,000

gain on disposal          <u>     (7,000)   </u>

Adjusted Income            221,000

Change in Working Capital:

Increase in A/R        (27,000)

Decreasein Inv          17,000

Increase in Prepaid   (5,000)

Increase Accrued /P   11,000

Decreasein A/P         (6,000)

Change In Working Capital     (10,000)

From Operating Activities    211,000

Investing

Sale of Equipment  47,000

Financing

Bonds Issued   60,000

Cash Flow              318,000

Beginning Cash   99,000

Cash Flow           318,000

Ending Cash        417,000

Explanation:

We first remove the non.monetary concetps from the net income.

Then we adjust for the change in working capital which are the incrase and decrease in the current assets and liabilities account

Increase in asset and decrease in liabilities represent cash outflow

while the opposite is true when an asset decrease(convert to cash) or a liablity increase (delay of the payment)

6 0
3 years ago
Would you rather be in charge of a product or work as a part of a team?
ivolga24 [154]

Answer:

work as part of a team

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Presented below is information available for Crane Company.
JulsSmile [24]

Answer:

the acid-test ratio is 1.5 times

Explanation:

The computation of the acid-test ratio is as follows:

Acid test Ratio = Quick assets ÷ current liabilities

where,

Quick Assets is

= Cash + short tern investments + Account receivable

= $3,500 + $50,000 + $56,000

= $109,500

And, the current liabilities is $73,000

So, the acid-test ratio is

= $109,500 ÷ $73,000

= 1.5 times

Hence, the acid-test ratio is 1.5 times

3 0
2 years ago
A perfect hedge (full coverage) on translation exposure can usually be achieved when which of the following occurs? a. Using a f
attashe74 [19]

Answer:

e). None of the above, because a perfect hedge does not exist

A perfect hedge is nearly impossible

Explanation:

A perfect hedge is a position undertaken by an investor that would eliminate the risk of an existing position, or a position that eliminates all market risk from a portfolio. In order to be a perfect hedge, a position would need to have a 100% inverse correlation to the initial position.

At the time of taking an opposite position in Derivatives Market, Perfect Hedge would mean covering the risk involved in the Cash Market Position completely, i.e. 100%. 2. Imperfect Hedge: When the position in the cash market is not completely hedged or not hedged to 100%, then such a hedge is called Imperfect Hedge.

6 0
3 years ago
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