Answer:
Explanation:
This is an Ordinary Annuity question. You can solve this using a financial calculator. I'm using (TI BA II Plus)
N; duration = 20
I/Y ; interest rate per year = 8.5%
PMT ; recurring annual payment = 70,000
FV; Future value = 0 (In solving annuities, use 0 if not given)
then CPT PV = ?
PV = 662,433.563
Therefore, your friend needs to have $662,433.56
 
        
             
        
        
        
Answer:
Net Income 193,000
Non-monetary terms:
 Depreciation expense    25,000
amortization expense       10,000
gain on disposal          <u>     (7,000)   </u>
Adjusted Income            221,000
Change in Working Capital:
Increase in A/R        (27,000)
Decreasein Inv          17,000
Increase in Prepaid   (5,000)
Increase Accrued /P   11,000
Decreasein A/P         (6,000)
Change In Working Capital     (10,000)
From Operating Activities    211,000
Investing
Sale of Equipment  47,000
Financing 
Bonds Issued   60,000
Cash Flow              318,000
Beginning Cash   99,000
Cash Flow           318,000
Ending Cash        417,000
Explanation:
We first remove the non.monetary concetps from the net income.
Then we adjust for the change in working capital which are the incrase and decrease in the current assets and liabilities account
Increase in asset and decrease in liabilities represent cash outflow
while the opposite is true when an asset decrease(convert to cash) or a liablity increase (delay of the payment)
 
        
             
        
        
        
Answer:
the acid-test ratio is 1.5 times 
Explanation:
The computation of the acid-test ratio is as follows:
Acid test Ratio = Quick assets ÷ current liabilities
where, 
Quick Assets is 
= Cash + short tern investments + Account receivable
= $3,500 + $50,000 + $56,000
= $109,500
And, the current liabilities is $73,000
So, the acid-test ratio is 
= $109,500 ÷ $73,000
= 1.5 times
Hence, the acid-test ratio is 1.5 times 
 
        
             
        
        
        
Answer: 
e). None of the above, because a perfect hedge does not exist
A perfect hedge is nearly impossible 
Explanation:
A perfect hedge is a position undertaken by an investor that would eliminate the risk of an existing position, or a position that eliminates all market risk from a portfolio. In order to be a perfect hedge, a position would need to have a 100% inverse correlation to the initial position.
At the time of taking an opposite position in Derivatives Market, Perfect Hedge would mean covering the risk involved in the Cash Market Position completely, i.e. 100%. 2. Imperfect Hedge: When the position in the cash market is not completely hedged or not hedged to 100%, then such a hedge is called Imperfect Hedge.