How can conventional supermarkets differentiate their offerings??

In the body of a cover message, you should a. emphasize writer benefits because hiring officers want to know what appeals to you

slamgirl [31]

Its water is wet or is wet water

6 0

3 years ago

The Converting Department of Osaka Napkin Company uses the average cost method and had 2,000 units in work in process that were

Delvig [45]

Answer:

Equivalent Units

Material cost = 26,560

Conversion Cost= 25,540

Explanation:

We would assume the company uses weighted average method of valuation.

Under the weighted average method of valuation, to account for completed units, it is assumed that the entire degree of work required is done in the period under consideration. So there is no separation of the completed units into opening inventory and fully worked.

Equivalent units = Degree of completion (%) × Number of units

Material cost

Item Unit Equivalent unit

Completed 25,200 100% ×25200 = 25,200

Closing WIP 1,360 100%× 1,360 1360

Total equivalent units 26,560

Conversion Cost

Item Unit Equivalent unit

Completed 25,200 100% ×25200 = 25,200

Closing WIP 1,360 25%× 1,360 340

Total equivalent units

3 0

3 years ago

We are planning a reception for our daughter. The hall that we are renting charges a $95 cleanup fee. In addition to the cleanup

ololo11 [35]

Answer:

<em>We can invite at most 80 people without going over our budget.</em>

Explanation:

The available budget is $ 2,100.

As a fixed amount we must pay $ 95 for the cleaning service. After making this payment we would be available $ 2,100 - $ 95 = $ 2,005 to cover the food and drink expenses of the guests. Since for each guest they charge us $ 25, we can invite a maximum of 80 guests ($ 2,005 / $ 25 = 80.2). Considering that we will invite 80 people, the total cost of the event will be $ 95 + 80. $ 25 = $ 2,095, that is, we will finally have $ 5 left over.

4 0

4 years ago

Aerelon Airways, a commercial airline, suffers a major crash. As a result, passengers are

pickupchik [31]

Answer:

Option B $1.03

Explanation:

First lets calculate present value = cash flow(PVAF, life, rate) where PVAF = present value annuity factor

= 15(PVAF, 10, 5 years)

from the annuity table

Present value = 15 * 3,790 = $56.8618 million

The decrease in Present value will be $56.8618 million

Decrease in price = present value/number of share = 56.8618/66 = 1.033851 approx $1.03

7 0

3 years ago

Mike is looking for a loan. He is willing to pay no more than an effective rate of 8. 000% annually. Which, if any, of the follo

Alexeev081 [22]

The Loan condition of Loan X and Loan Y will meet the effective rate of 8.00% criteria of Mike.

Computation:

Given,

Effective interest rate =8% $(i_{c})$

Nominal interest rates: $(r)$

Loan X =7.815%, compounded semiannually $(m=2)$

Loan Y: 7. 724% nominal rate, compounded monthly $(m=12)$

Loan Z: 7. 698% nominal rate, compounded weekly $(m=52)$

The formula of the effective interest rate will be used:

$i_{c}=(1+(\frac{r}{m})^{m}-1)$

For Loan X:

$i_{c}=(1+(\frac{r}{m})^{m}-1)$

$i_{c}=(1+(\frac{0.07815}{2})^{2}-1)$

$i_{c}=0.07958 \:0r\: 7.968\%$

As the effective interest rate of Loan X is lower than the actual effective interest rate. Therefore, loan X meets the criteria of Mike.

For Loan Y:

$i_{c}=(1+(\frac{r}{m})^{m}-1)$

$i_{c}=(1+(\frac{0.07724}{12})^{12}-1)$

$i_{c}=0.08003 \:0r\: 8.003\%$

As the effective interest rate of Loan Y is greater than the actual effective interest rate. Therefore, loan Y will not meet the criteria of Mike.

For Loan Z:

$i_{c}=(1+(\frac{r}{m})^{m}-1)$

$i_{c}=(1+(\frac{0.07698}{52})^{52}-1)$

$i_{c}=0.07996 \:0r\: 7.996\%$

As the effective interest rate of Loan Z is lower than the actual effective interest rate. Therefore, loan Z meets the criteria of Mike.

Therefore, in reference to the computation of the effective interest rate of individual loans. The correct option is b. X and Z.

To know more about the effective interest rates, refer to the link:

brainly.com/question/2602223

5 0

3 years ago