Answer: it was probably more chocolaty because he added 5 teaspoons instead of 4 which is 2 doubled
Step-by-step explanation:
40 to the second power is 1600!
Answer:
The correct option is A
Step-by-step explanation:
Since (1, 3) are the solutions to the function g(x), then
g(x) = (x – 1)(x – 3) = x² –3x – x + 3 = x² – 4x + 3
We know that f(x) is on the same plane and f(1) = 1.
Let's take g(1) = (1 – 1)(1 – 3) = 0
Therefore, when x = 1; f = 1 and g = 0. Hence
g(1) = f(1) – 1
In order words, g(x) could be f(x) – 1.
The correct option is A
Answer:
for this question the correct answer is x= 10
Step-by-step explanation:
18 divided by 30 equals .6
0.6=60%
Hope this helps and please give brainliest!
