Answer:
Option A. $20
Explanation:
Marginal cost be MC, marginal revenue be MR and . We know that
MR = ∆TR ÷ ∆Q
or
MR = (P∆Q+Q∆P) ÷ ∆Q
Here,
P is Profit-maximizing price
or
MR = (P∆Q ÷ ∆Q) + (Q∆P ÷ ∆Q)
or
MR = P + (Q∆P ÷ ∆Q)
we can also write the above equation as
MR = 
also,
Price elasticity of demand PED = 
or
MR = P + [ P ÷ (PED) ]
We know MR = MC
Therefore,
MC = P + [ P ÷ (PED) ]
(P − MC) ÷ P = −1 ÷ PED
Substituting the values provided in the question
MC = $10
PED = -2
we get
P = [ PED ÷ (1 + PED)] × MC
P = ( -2 ÷ -1) × 10
or
P =$20
hence,
Option A. $20
Answer:
Option C, SAME WEIGHTS
Explanation:
A hazard is any source of potential damage, harm or adverse health effects on something or someone.
Risk assessment is a framework that uses hazard category as a starting point for evaluating risks. Risk assessment can be used in any situation where death, system loss, or property, equipment or environmental damage is a concern.
Experts use different risk assessment methods and approaches. Technical experts assign same weights to different ways of dying so they assign equal weights to hazards that take many lives at one time and to hazards that many lives at once.
Therefore, the answer that best suits the question is option C. Experts tend to assign the SAME WEIGHTS to hazards that take many lives at once as they do to hazards that take many lives one at a time.
Thank you for posting your question here at brainly. The rate of return on the invest is 500%.
ROI<span> is usually expressed as a percentage and is typically used for personal financial decisions, to compare a company's profitability or to compare the efficiency of different </span>investments<span>. The </span>return on investment<span> formula is: </span>ROI<span> = (Net Profit / Cost of </span>Investment<span>) x 100.
</span>
therefore: 25,000/ 5000 = 5 x 100 = 500%
Answer:
The additional paid-in capital will increase by $850,000
Explanation:
Additional paid up capital: It is that paid up capital which is excess of par value. It is mentioned in the balance sheet when new shares is issued.
The computation of additional paid up capital are shown below:
= Difference of per share price × Number of shares
where,
difference = $22 - $5 = $17
So, the value equals to
= $17 × 50,000
= $850,000
So, the additional paid-in capital will increase by $850,000
Answer:
Sell securities in the open market.
Increase discount rate.
Increase required reserve ratio.
Explanation:
Apart from interest on reserves the other tools that the Fed can use to control money supply are open market operations, discount rate, and required reserve ratio.
In order to reduce inflationary pressures, the fed needs to reduce the money supply in the economy. For this, the fed needs to sell government securities in the open market. This will reduce the reserves with reserves and their credit creation power. As a result, the money supply will get reduced as well.
Other than that the fed increase the discount rate, this will make borrowing from feds expensive for the commercial banks. This will also help in reducing the money supply as the bank's reserve will get reduced.
The fed can also increase the required reserve ratio. So the banks will need to keep a greater portion of their total reserves as required reserves. They will be able to create less credit so the money supply will get reduced.
