-1, because the equation for the slope is y2-y1/x2-x1. So let's bring the y value in the second set of point, which is 20, and bring the first y value in the first set of points, which is 5. 20-5 is 15. Now let's subtract the x values. So the second x from the second parentheses x value is -7, and the first x value from the first parentheses is 8. -7-8 is -15. Now we have this division equation, 15/-15, which is -1. So therefore, the slope of the line will be -1.
Answer:
z<8
Step-by-step explanation:
First: write down the equation : 6z<48
Second: divide both sides with 6 (since its the only number that can be divided for both sides)
Third: then you'll get z<8
Answer:
x = 3
y = 15
Step-by-step explanation:
If △XPS ≅△DNF, their corresponding sides would be congruent. This implies that:
XP ≅ DN
PS ≅ NF
XS ≅ DF
Given that:
XP = 4y - 3
DN = 57
NF = 51
XS = 17x + 3
DF = 54
Therefore:
XP = DN
4y - 3 = 57 (Substitution)
Add 3 to both sides
4y = 57 + 3
4y = 60
Divide both sides by 4
y = 60/4
y = 15
Also,
XS = DF
17x + 3 = 54 (substitution)
Subtract 3 from each side
17x = 54 - 3
17x = 51
Divide both sides by 17
x = 51/17
x = 3
ok for number 2.) 2+8+1+5+1+3+1+7+5+4+3+1=41 and 41 divided by the number of number which is 12= 3.41666666667
the mean for number 2 is 3.41666666667.
for the median you put the number from least to greatest, like so:
1, 1, 1, 1, 2, 3, 3, 4, 5, 5, 7, 8.
The middle is 3 and 3 so 3+3 divided by 2 is 6 so the median is 6.
I cant do mode but range is 8-1 divided by 2
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Previous concepts
The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".
Solution to the problem
Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:
The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:
For this case we want this probability:
And we can use the complement rule like this:
![P(X>9) = 1-P(X \leq 8)= 1-[P(X=0) + P(X=1) +....+P(X=8)]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20P%28X%3E9%29%20%3D%201-P%28X%20%5Cleq%208%29%3D%201-%5BP%28X%3D0%29%20%2B%20P%28X%3D1%29%20%2B....%2BP%28X%3D8%29%5D%20)
And we can find the individual probabilities like this:
And in order to do the operations we can use the following excel code:
"=1-BINOM.DIST(8,25,0.3089,TRUE)"
And we got:
