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solong [7]
3 years ago
14

Simplify 3sqrt -32 x^4 y^6

Mathematics
1 answer:
Tju [1.3M]3 years ago
5 0
3 sqrt(-32) x^4 y^6
sqrt(-32) = sqrt(-1) sqrt(32) = i sqrt(32):
3 i sqrt(32) x^4 y^6
sqrt(32) = sqrt(2^5) = 2^2 sqrt(2):
3 i×2^2 sqrt(2) x^4 y^6
2^2 = 4:
3 i×4 sqrt(2) x^4 y^6
3×4 = 12:
Answer:  12 i sqrt(2) x^4 y^6
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Complete the equation of the line through (-10,-7)(−10,−7)(, minus, 10, comma, minus, 7, )and (-5,-9)(−5,−9)(, minus, 5, comma,
Tanzania [10]

Answer:

y = -\frac{2}{5}\cdot x - 11

Step-by-step explanation:

First, the slope is determined by using the following expression:

m = \frac{y_{2}-y_{1}}{x_{2}-x_{1}}

m = \frac{-7-(-9)}{-10 - (-5)}

m = -\frac{2}{5}

The y-intercept is found by using the line equation, the slope and one point:

y = m \cdot x +b

b = y - m\cdot x

b = -7 - \left(-\frac{2}{5}\right)\cdot (-10)

b = -11

The equation of the line is:

y = -\frac{2}{5}\cdot x - 11

7 0
3 years ago
Order Of operation.
Nikolay [14]

Answer

18(2)+12(2)-4(5)

36+24-20

60-20

40

Step-by-step explanation:

since they had two-18 yard passes and two 12 yard runs, that's the first part of the expression, and then they had four penalties that cost them 5 yards, and that was the last term. When you simplify, you end up with 40 yards gained.

In math

Passes: 18(2)

Runs: 12(2)

Penalties:4(5)

equation

18(2)*12(2)-4(5)

Hope it helped

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Pls help me for brainliest answer
Ket [755]

Answer with Step-by-step explanation:

a)3n + 4 \\  \\n = 1 \\ 3 \times 1 + 4 \\ 3 + 4 \\  =7 \\  \\ n = 2 \\ 3 \times 2 + 4 \\ 6 + 4 \\  = 10 \\  \\ n = 3 \\ 3 \times 3 + 4 \\ 9 + 4 \\  = 13 \\  \\ n = 4 \\ 3 \times 4 + 4 \\ 12 + 4 \\  = 16 \\  \\ n = 10 \\ 3 \times 10 + 4 \\ 30 + 4 \\  = 34 \\

So in this sequence,

1st term = 7

2nd term = 10

3rd term = 13

4th term = 16

10th term = 34

b)4n - 5 \\  \\ n = 1 \\ 4 \times 1 - 5 \\ 4 - 5 \\  =  - 1 \\  \\ n = 2 \\ 4 \times 2 - 5 \\ 8 - 5 \\ =  3 \\  \\ n = 3 \\ 4 \times 3 - 5 \\ 12 - 5 \\  = 7 \\  \\ n = 4 \\ 4 \times 4 - 5 \\ 16- 5 \\  = 11 \\  \\ n = 10 \\ 4 \times 10 - 5 \\ 40 - 5 \\  = 35

In this sequence,

1st term = -1

2nd term = 3

3rd term = 7

4th term = 11

10th term =35

5 0
3 years ago
Find x <br> –3(x – 4) + x = 2x – 12
raketka [301]

Answer:

x=6

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
2 years ago
A couple intends to have two children, and suppose that approximately 52% of births are male and 48% are female.
Pachacha [2.7K]

a) Probability of both being males is 27%

b) Probability of both being females is 23%

c) Probability of having exactly one male and one female is 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

a)

The probability that the birth is a male can be written as

p(m) = 0.52 (which corresponds to 52%)

While the probability that the birth is a female can be written as

p(f) = 0.48 (which corresponds to 48%)

Here we want to calculate the probability that over  2 births, both are male. Since the two births are two independent events (the probability of the 2nd to be a male  does not depend on the fact that the 1st one is a male), then the probability of both being males is given by the product of the individual probabilities:

p(mm)=p(m)\cdot p(m)

And substituting, we find

p(mm)=0.52\cdot 0.52 = 0.27

So, 27%.

b)

In this case, we want to find the probability that both children are female, so the probability

p(ff)

As in the previous case, the probability of the 2nd child to be a female is independent from whether the 1st one is a male or a female: therefore, we can apply the rule for independent events, and this means that the probability that both children are females is the product of the individual probability of a child being a female:

p(ff)=p(f)\cdot p(f)

And substituting

p(f)=0.48

We find:

p(ff)=0.48\cdot 0.48=0.23

Which means 23%.

c)

In this case, we want to find the probability they have exactly one male and exactly one female child. This is given by the sum of two probabilities:

- The probability that 1st child is a male and 2nd child is a female, namely p(mf)

- The probability that 1st child is a female and 2nd child is a male, namely p(fm)

So, this probability is

p(mf Ufm)=p(mf)+p(fm)

We have:

p(mf)=p(m)\cdot p(f)=0.52\cdot 0.48=0.25

p(fm)=p(f)\cdot p(m)=0.48\cdot 0.52=0.25

Therefore, this probability is

p(mfUfm)=0.25+0.25=0.50

So, 50%.

Learn more about probabilities:

brainly.com/question/5751004

brainly.com/question/6649771

brainly.com/question/8799684

brainly.com/question/7888686

#LearnwithBrainly

5 0
3 years ago
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