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3 years ago

If the british pound (₤) appreciates by 10% against the dollar:

1 answer:

4 0

The answer to this question is the US importer of British goods will tend to find that their cost of goods rises, hurting its bottom line<span>.
when the british pound is appreciated by 10%, it means that we need additional 10% to acquire a pound with our dollar currencies. In American traders' perspective, this will increase their overall cost that they need when doing transactions with british companies.

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The client at the HIV clinic has come in complaining of unintended weight loss with diarrhea lasting over the last month. How is

AVprozaik [17]

Answer:

The correct answer is Loss of 10% of usual weight.

Explanation:

The attrition syndrome associated with HIV infection is characterized by:

Loss of involuntary body weight and greater than 10% compared to the normal reference weight.
Diarrhea or chronic weakness with fever, for a period greater than 30 days.
Absence of any infection or condition other than HIV: cancer, tuberculosis, cryptosporidiasis and other enteritis that could explain these symptoms.
In practice, any progressive and involuntary weight loss of this magnitude is considered a syndrome of attrition and translates into the development of a significant nutritional deficit that leads to significant physical and psychological deterioration.

The attrition syndrome may be a consequence of HIV infection itself. Thus, those patients presenting with symptoms of wear and tear should use all available options of antiretroviral therapy, which may remit symptoms and not require other specific interventions. It is also associated with opportunistic HIV infections and cancers. Opportunistic infections that cause diarrhea can cause attrition syndrome. This can cause greater immunodeficiency in affected people and predispose them to certain diarrheal opportunistic infections, which would be reinforced by a vicious cycle.

7 0

3 years ago

(Disregard income taxes in this problem.) Compute the following:a.An investment of $10,000 has an investment/inﬂow ratio of 6.2

aleksandrvk [35]

Answer:

Explanation:

a) Investment/flow ratio =10000/annual cash flow=6.2

So, the annual cash flow is 10000/6.2=1613

b) Investment/flow ratio =investment/2000=6.14

So, the investment is 2000*6.14=12280

4 0

2 years ago

Chris purchased a 10 year 100 par value bond where 6% coupons are paid semiannually. Cheryl purchased a 100 par value bond where

WITCHER [35]

Answer:

Chris paid $109.68 for his bond. Since he paid a premium for the bond, the YTM is lower than the coupon rate.

Explanation:

yield of Cheryl's bond is 6% since she purchased it at par and the bond's coupon is 6%

if Chris's bond yields 80% of Cheryl's, it will yield 6% x 0.8 = 4.8%

we can use the approximate yield to maturity formula to find the market price of Chris's bond:

2.4%(semiannual) = {3 + [(100 - MV)/20]} / [(100 + MV)/2]

0.024 x [(100 + MV)/2] = 3 + [(100 - MV)/20]

0.024 x (50 + 0.5MV) = 3 + 5 - 0.05MV

1.2 + 0.012MV = 8 - 0.05MV

0.062MV = 6.8

MV = 6.8 / 0.062 = 109.68

8 0

2 years ago

g Swifty Corporation issued 3,100 5%, 5-year, $1,000 bonds dated January 1, 2022, at face value. Interest is paid each January 1

slamgirl [31]

Answer:

Dr Cash $3,100,000

Cr Bonds payable $3,100,000

Explanation:

Since the bonds were issued at face value of $1000 each,the cash proceeds received from the entire issue of 3,100 bonds can be computed thus:

Cash proceeds=$1000*3,100=$3,100,000

The cash proceeds imply that cash inflows have increased by $3,100,000, as a result cash account should be debited with $3,100,00o while the same amount is credited to bonds payable since an increase in debt obligation should be a credit entry.

8 0

3 years ago

One reason that the quantity demanded of a good increases when its price falls is that the:

Brums [2.3K]

<span>Lower price increases the real incomes of buyers, enabling them to purchase more.</span>

4 0

3 years ago