Answer:
Divide: 2 : 1
8
= 2
1
· 8
1
= 2 · 8
1 · 1
= 16
1
= 16
Dividing two fractions is the same as multiplying the first fraction by the reciprocal value of the second fraction. The first sub-step is to find the reciprocal (reverse the numerator and denominator, reciprocal of 1
8
is 8
1
) of the second fraction. Next, multiply the two numerators. Then, multiply the two denominators.
In words - two divided by one eighth = sixteen.
SO FINAL ANSWER IS 16!!! HOPE THIS HELPS YOU mark me the brainliest if im correct
Answer:
Dr Cash/Bank $2,250
Cr Account Receivable $2,250
Step-by-step explanation:
At the time the transaction was carried out, that is the previous month, the accounting entries was a debit to account receivable (client account) and a credit to sales account. which is as shown below:
<em>Dr Account Receivable $2,250</em>
<em>Cr Sales $2,250</em>
<em>Being sales on credit to a client.</em>
The client account will have an outstanding debit balance of <em>$2,250 </em>until payment is made. once payment is made, the following entries will be made to ensure no outstanding balance in the client account.
Dr Cash/Bank $2,250
Cr Account Receivable $2,250.
y = ( 48 *2 ) / 6
Step-by-step explanation:
If y varies directly as x they are directly proportional, which means they relate to each other in the same way....
2 : y = 6: 48
what is y if x = 2?
The value of y can be found if you write it a two fracrions
2 : y = 6 : 48
2 / y = 6 / 48
cross multiply the fractions gives
6*y = 48 *2
divide left and right of the = sign by 6 gives the answer:
y = ( 48 *2 ) / 6
(if you solve it you get y = 12 but that was not the question).
Other method:
multiply left and right of the = sign by y
2 * y/y = y *6 / 48
6y / 48 = 2 * 1
multiply left and right of the = sign by 48
6y * 48/48 = ( 48 *2 )
6y = ( 48 *2 )
divide left and right of the = sign by 6
6/6* y = ( 48 *2 )/6
y = ( 48 *2 ) / 6
(if you solve it you get y = 12 but that was not the question).
The probability that the train will be there when Alex arrives is 5/18
If Alex arrives at any time after 1.20pm the chances that train will be there is 1/3.
However if alex arrives at 1.00pm exactly there is no chance the train will be arrive there.
The probability that the train will be there increase linearly to 1/3 as alex's arrival time moves from 1.00pm to 1.20pm.
By arranging the probabilities over the first 20 minutes to get a 1/6 chance the train will be there if alex arrives between 1.00pm to 1.20pm
we get the final answer by
=1/3( 1/6 + 1/3 + 1/3)
=5/18
So, the probability that the train will be there when Alex arrives is 5/18
Learn more about PROBABILITY here
brainly.com/question/24756209
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