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BartSMP [9]
3 years ago
11

A manufacturing process produces integrated circuit chips. Over the long run, the fraction of bad chips produced by the process

is 20%. Thoroughly testing a chip to determine whether it is good or bad is rather expensive, so a cheaper test is used. All good chips will past the test, but so will 7.5% of the bad chips. (a) Given that a chip passes the test, what is the probability that it is a good chip? Use at least 3 decimal places. (b) If the company sells all chips that pass the cheaper test, what percentage of sold chips will be bad? Use at least 3 decimal places.
Business
1 answer:
zysi [14]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

(a) Given that a chip passes the test, what is the probability that it is a good chip?

LetB = {the chip is good}

A={the chip passes the cheap test}.

Bc={the chip is bad}

Ac={the chip fails the cheap test}

P(A | B) = 1

P(A | B c ) = 0.075

= \frac{P(A | B)P(B)}{P(A | B)P(B) + P(A | Bc)P(Bc)} = \frac{1.0.8}{1.0.8+ 0.075 · 0.2}  ≈ 0.9751

(b) If the company sells all chips that pass the cheaper test, what percentage of sold chips will be bad?

P(B c  |A) =  1 − P(B | A) = 1 -  0.9751 = 0.0249

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The most important information in a press release should be ________.
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3 years ago
Marshall Inc. recently hired your consulting firm to improve the company's performance. It has been highly profitable but has be
dezoksy [38]

Answer:

148.02 days

Explanation:

The computation of the cash conversion cycle is shown below:

As we know that

Cash conversion cycle is = Days inventory outstanding + days sale outstanding - days payable outstanding

where,

Number of days inventory outstanding is

= Average inventory ÷ cost of goods sold per day

= $75000 ÷ ($360,000 ÷ 365 days)

= 76.04 days

Number of days sales outstanding is

= Average account receivable ÷ Average sales per day

= $160,000 ÷ ($600,000 ÷ 365)

= 97.33 days

And, the number of days payable outstanding is

= Average accounts payable ÷ cost pf goods sold per day

= $25,000 ÷ ($360,000 ÷ 365)

= 25.35 days

So, the cash conversion cycle is

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3 0
3 years ago
Currently digby is paying a dividend of $19.67 (per share). if this dividend were raised by $3.64, given its current stock price
umka2103 [35]

The dividend yield for Digby is $23.33

<h3>What is Dividend Yield?</h3>
  • A financial ratio (dividend/price) called the dividend yield, which is stated as a percentage, demonstrates how much a firm pays in dividends annually in relation to the price of its stock.
  • Price/Dividend, often known as the dividend yield ratio, is the counterpart of dividend yield.
  • The amount of money a firm pays shareholders for owning a share of its stock divided by its current stock price is known as the dividend yield, which is represented as a percentage.
  • The majority of mature corporations pay dividends.
  • The dividend yields of businesses in the consumer goods and utility sectors are frequently greater than average.
  • The dividends from real estate investment trusts (REITs), master limited partnerships (MLPs), and business development corporations (BDCs) are taxed more heavily than the typical dividend.

Explanation:

Given that

Dividend per share = $19.69

Increase in Dividend = $3.64

Using this formula

Dividend yield = Dividend per share + Increase in Dividend

Dividend yield = $19.69+$3.64

Dividend yield =$23.22

Therefore the Dividend yield will be $23.22

To learn more about Dividend yield with the given link

brainly.com/question/28044310

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6 0
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murzikaleks [220]

Answer :It doesn't allow the entrepreneur to raise enough money. -A.

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