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kotegsom [21]
3 years ago
15

You roll a 6sides die what is p 5

Mathematics
1 answer:
Paladinen [302]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

1/6 or 16.667%

Step-by-step explanation:

I am assuming you are asking for the probability of rolling 5 on a 6 sided die. To solve this, think: you have 6 sides that this die can land on. It will land on only 1 side. Therefore, divide 6 sides by 100(%) result.

You might be interested in
You decide to play roulette 200 times each time betting the same amount on red. you will loe money if you win on fewer than 100
Arturiano [62]
First off, your chances of red are not really 50-50. You are overlooking the 0 slot or the 00 slot which are green. So, chances of red are 18 in 37 (0 slot) or 38 (0 and 00 slots). With a betting machine, the odds does not change no trouble what has occurred before. Think through the simplest circumstance, a coin toss. If I toss heads 10 times one after the other, the chances of tails about to happen on the next toss are still on a 50-50. A betting machine has no ability, no plan, and no past. 
Chances (0 slot) that you success on red are 18 out of 37 (18 red slots), but likelihoods of losing are 19 out of 37 (18 black plus 0). For the wheel with both a 0 and 0-0 slot, the odds are poorer. You chances of red are 18 out of 38 (18 red slots win), and down are 20 out of 38 (18 black plus 0 and 00). It does not really matter on how long you play there, the probabilities would always continue the same on every spin. The lengthier you play, the more thoroughly you will tie the chances with a total net loss of that portion of a percent in accord of the house. 18 winning red slots and either 19 or 20 losing slots. 
6 0
4 years ago
Suppose Đ1 and Đ2 are known to be complementary. If mÐ1 = 20, then mÐ2 =
juin [17]

Answer:

70

Step-by-step explanation:

complementary angles are 2 angles that add up to 90, the first angle is already 20 so just subtract 90-20 to find other angle

6 0
4 years ago
Why did Matt get upset when his teacher called him average?
Gennadij [26K]
Because Matt is slightly above average, and it was foolish of the teacher to make such a mistake lol
7 0
1 year ago
In an ore, 9.8% of its total weight is metal. How many pounds of metal are in 1,950 lb of ore?
Fudgin [204]

Answer

Find out the  how many pounds of metal are in 1,950 lb of ore .

To proof

let us assume that the pounds of metal are in 1,950 lb of ore be x .

As given

In an ore, 9.8% of its total weight is metal.

ore weight = 1,950 lb

9.8% is written in the decimal form

= \frac{9.8}{100}

= 0.098

Than the equation becomes

x = 0.098 × 1950

x = 191.1 pounds

Therefore the 191.1 pounds of metal are in 1,950 lb of ore .

Hence proved



5 0
3 years ago
A simple random sample of size nequals10 is obtained from a population with muequals68 and sigmaequals15. ​(a) What must be true
valentina_108 [34]

Answer:

(a) The distribution of the sample mean (\bar x) is <em>N</em> (68, 4.74²).

(b) The value of P(\bar X is 0.7642.

(c) The value of P(\bar X\geq 69.1) is 0.3670.

Step-by-step explanation:

A random sample of size <em>n</em> = 10 is selected from a population.

Let the population be made up of the random variable <em>X</em>.

The mean and standard deviation of <em>X</em> are:

\mu=68\\\sigma=15

(a)

According to the Central Limit Theorem if we have a population with mean <em>μ</em> and standard deviation <em>σ</em> and we take appropriately huge random samples (<em>n</em> ≥ 30) from the population with replacement, then the distribution of the sample mean will be approximately normally distributed.

Since the sample selected is not large, i.e. <em>n</em> = 10 < 30, for the distribution of the sample mean will be approximately normally distributed, the population from which the sample is selected must be normally distributed.

Then, the mean of the distribution of the sample mean is given by,

\mu_{\bar x}=\mu=68

And the standard deviation of the distribution of the sample mean is given by,

\sigma_{\bar x}=\frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n}}=\frac{15}{\sqrt{10}}=4.74

Thus, the distribution of the sample mean (\bar x) is <em>N</em> (68, 4.74²).

(b)

Compute the value of P(\bar X as follows:

P(\bar X

                    =P(Z

*Use a <em>z</em>-table for the probability.

Thus, the value of P(\bar X is 0.7642.

(c)

Compute the value of P(\bar X\geq 69.1) as follows:

Apply continuity correction as follows:

P(\bar X\geq 69.1)=P(\bar X> 69.1+0.5)

                    =P(\bar X>69.6)

                    =P(\frac{\bar X-\mu_{\bar x}}{\sigma_{\bar x}}>\frac{69.6-68}{4.74})

                    =P(Z>0.34)\\=1-P(Z

Thus, the value of P(\bar X\geq 69.1) is 0.3670.

7 0
4 years ago
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