Answer:
$20000 gain for John Corporation and $10000 loss for Bass Corporation.
Explanation:
John Corporation gain(loss) = FMV of property - Liability assumed - Stock basis
= 55000-10000-25000
= 20000
Bass Corporation gain/loss = 55000-65000
= - 10000
Therefore, $20000 gain for John Corporation and $10000 loss for Bass Corporation.
Answer:
$22,800
Explanation:
Calculation for the total amount of indirect manufacturing cost incurred
First step is to find the fixed manufacturing overhead portion
Fixed manufacturing overhead portion=$3.00 *5000 units
Fixed manufacturing overhead portion =$15,000
Second step is to calculate the indirect manufacturing cost if 6,000 units are produced using this formula
Indirect manufacturing cost =Fixed manufacturing overhead portion
+ Variable portion
Let plug in the formula
Indirect manufacturing cost=$15,000 + ($1.30*6,000 units)
Indirect manufacturing cost=$15,000+$7,800
Indirect manufacturing cost=$22,800
Therefore the total amount of indirect manufacturing cost incurred is closest to $22,800
Answer:
PV= $9,355.78
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
If $ 9,000 is invested in a certain business at the start of the year, the investor will receive $ 2,700 at the end of each of the next four years.
Interest rate= 6%.
First, we need to find the final value
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= payment
FV= {2,700*[(1.06^4)-1]}/0.06= 11,811.46
Now, we calculate the present value:
PV= FV/(1+i)^n
PV= 11,811.46/1.06^4= $9,355.78
The existence of pre-tax cost of debt and post-tax cost of debt is due
to the acknoledgement of the tax benefit from issuing debt.There is no
tax benefit from paying divdends,so it makes no sense talking about
pre-tax,post-tax cost of equity for a firm.When you think about cash
flow to equity you can only assume that the taxes owed by the company
have already been paid.Now, the taxation over the income of the
shareholder is a whole different issue that does not take place in this
discussion,since it is not taken in consideration either in cost of
equity or cost of debt.
Answer: Yes
Explanation:
The construction company is entitled to compensation because it has a property right to enter and remove minerals.
The investor gave the construction company the right to use the properties on the land, if anything would be done on the land, the construction company should be compensated because they bought the right to do business there. Since the owner granted them the sole right, they are entitled to the resources.
