There are several information's of immense importance in the problem. Based on these information's the answer to the question can be easily reached. The only thing that has to be kept in mind is the calculation part, otherwise it is a simple problem.
Now it is given that:
A large chocolate shake takes 8/9 of a pint of milk.
Then
Amount of milk required to make medium shake = (8/9) * (1/7) of a pint
= 8/63 of a pint
Then it can be said that for making a medium chocolate shake , 8/63 of a pint of milk is required. This is the simplest form of the fraction and it cannot be expressed as a mixed number since the denominator is higher than the numerator.
Answer:
-9+6=-3
Step-by-step explanation:
From the above function, it is clear that the value of f is never 0. Hence the statement that is true is (Option E), See explanation of same below.
<h3>What is the explanation for the above function?</h3>
Note that the function is related to Euler's number which is depicted as:
e ≈ 2.7182. The function is given as:
f(x) = 100 * 
Assuming x = -2, we'd have:
100 * 2.7182
= 271.82
= 0.00001353354
Hence, even when x tends < 0 the function f(x) thus, is never 0. See the attached graph for confirmation.
Learn more about functions at:
brainly.com/question/25638609
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Answer:
17.75x + 5.25
165
x
9
Step-by-step explanation:
The total cost can be represented by 17.75x + 5.25, where x is the number of people.
They can only spend a maximum of $165, so a less than or equal sign has to be used.
The inequality will be 17.75x + 5.25
165
Now, solve for x:
17.75x + 5.25
165
17.75x
159.75
x
9
So, x
9 is the answer, meaning 9 people or less can go to the amusement park.
Answer:
6 17/18
Step-by-step explanation:
You first find the common denominater and covert the fractions
4 8/18 + 2 9/18
Then add!