Answer:
16/3 because you put a 1 under 8 since it's not a fraction hen multiple across
Step-by-step explanation:
pls give brainly
Answer:
see explanation
Step-by-step explanation:
To prove that BC ≅ AD, that is that BC = AD
You would need to prove the lengths are the same.
No. A function maps one input to exactly one output. The given relation maps 1 to both 1 and -1, as indicated by the pairs (1, 1) and (1, -1).
There are 2cm is the answer is this what your looking for
