Answer:
Share price : $ 56.23
Explanation:
CAPM
risk free = 0.05
market rate = 0.11
premium market = (market rate - risk free) 0.06
beta(non diversifiable risk) = 1.64
Ke 0.14840
Now, we solve for the present value of the future dividends:
year dividend* present value**
1 2.91 2.53
2 3.31 2.51
3 3.78 2.49
4 4.31 2.48
4 80.38 46.22
TOTAL 56.23
*Dividends will be calculate as the previous year dividends tiems the grow rate
during the first four year is 14%
then, we calcualte the present value of all the future dividends growing at 9% using the dividend grow model:

(4.31 x 1.09) / (0.1484 - 0.09) = 80.38
Then we discount eahc using the present value of a lump sum:
We discount using the CAPM COst of Capital of 14.84%
last we add them all to get the share price: $ 56.23
Answer: a) Debit to Office Supplies for $81.
Explanation:
Office Supplies of $81 were used in the month of September. When replenishing the fund, this asset will be accounted for by being debited and cash will be credited to reflect the reason the cash account is being reduced.
The Journal entry for the replenishment will be;
DR Office supplies Account ......................................$81
DR Merchandise inventory Account ........................$153
DR Misc. expense Account........................................ $30
CR Cash account ......................................................................$264
Answer:
GDP grew by $2,200
Explanation:
G<em>ross domestic product (GDP) which is the total market value of all the final goods and services produced in a country over a given period of time. The GDP can be calculated using the value added approach.</em>
Here the GPD figure is ascertained by summing the amount of additional value created by each factor of production at each stage of the production process of the final product.
<em>Only the values added are summed, the cost of the inputs or intermediate goods are not included</em>
<em>In this question, the final value of $2200 represents the amount by which the GDP has increased in the period. This also can be verified using the value-added approach as follows</em>
Value added($)
Gold miner - 600
Mining company : 1000 -600 = 400
Jewerlry maker :1600 - 1000 = 600
Departmental store :2200 -1600 = <u>600</u>
Total value added <u>2,200</u>
The overhead cost that should be allocated to Zeta via activity-based costing is $356,000.
The following formula for determining the overhead cost allocated to Zeta:
= Zeta pool no 1 ÷ total pool no 1 × pool cost + zeta pool no 2 ÷ total pool no 2 × pool cost + zeta pool no 3 ÷ total pool no 3 × pool cost
= 2,800 ÷ 4,000 × $160,000 + 55 ÷ 100 × $280,000 + 750 ÷ 3,000 x $360,000
= $356,000
Therefore we can conclude that the overhead cost that should be allocated to Zeta via activity-based costing is $356,000.
Learn more about the overhead here: brainly.com/question/11950737
Answer:
A. $119,000
B. 10%
C.$11,900
Explanation:
Deprecation is a method used in expensing the cost of an asset.
The depreciable cost = Cost of asset - Salvage value = $123,800 - $4,800 = $119,000
The straight line rate = 1/10= 0.1 = 10%
annual straight-line depreciation = depreciable cost × straight line rate = $119,000 × 0.1 = $11,900
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