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Paladinen [302]
3 years ago
5

Unemployment rates have been higher in many european countries in recent decades than in the united states. is the main reason f

or this long-term difference in unemployment rates more likely to be cyclical unemployment or the natural rate of unemployment? explain briefly
Business
1 answer:
dusya [7]3 years ago
8 0
The main reason for the long term difference in unemployment rate is as a result of NATURAL RATE OF UNEMPLOYMENT.
European rate of unemployment has been higher because of the conditions that underlie the demand and supply of labor in Europe. Many European countries have a combination of welfare and unemployment benefits and other labor laws which impose additional costs on businesses when people are hired and when they are to be laid off. All these work together to affect the rate at which companies employed workers.
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Admission prices to Dollywood are $50 for a one-day ticket, $80 for a two-day ticket, and $100 for an annual pass. Based on thes
Neporo4naja [7]

Answer: b. $30; $20; $0

Explanation:

<em>Admission prices to Dollywood are $50 for a one-day ticket, $80 for a two-day ticket, and $100 for an annual pass. Based on these prices, the marginal cost of visiting Dollywood the second day is </em><em><u>$30</u></em><em>, the third day is </em><em><u>$20</u></em><em>, and the fourth day is </em><em><u>$0.</u></em>

The marginal cost is the extra cost per day of going to Dollywood.

Second day

Marginal cost = Second day price - First day

= 80 - 50

= $30

Third day

Marginal cost = Third day price - Second day

= 100 - 80

= $20

Fourth Day

Marginal cost = Fourth day price - third day

= 100 - 100

= $0

3 0
3 years ago
Use the following comparative figures for Apple and Google. Google 12.662 $ Key Figures Net income (in millions) Cash dividends
azamat

Answer and Explanation :

Few information is missing in the question kindly find the attachment

As per the data given in the question,

The formula and the computation is shown below

1) Book value per share = Equity applicable to share ÷ share outstanding

                                             Apple Google

Equity  common share a $134,047 $152,502

Common share outstanding b 5,126.201 694.783

Book value per common share a ÷ b $26.15 $219.50

2)Basic EPS = Net income ÷ weighted Avg common share outstanding

                Apple Google

Net income a $48,351 $12,662

weighted Avg common share outstanding b 5217.242 693.049

Basic EPS a ÷ b $9.27 $18.27

3)Dividend yield = Cash dividend per common share ÷ Market price per share

                                              Apple Google

Cash dividend per common share a 2.4 0

Market price per share b $154.12 $1046.4

Dividend yield a ÷ b 1.56% 0.00%

4) Price earning ratio = Market price per share ÷ Basic EPS

                                  Apple Google

Market price per share a $154.12 $1046.4

Basic EPS b 9.26754 18.26999

Price earning ratio a ÷ b 16.63 57.27

5) A higher PE ration indicates that investors want to pay a higher share price because of growth expectation in near by future

Therefore Google has higher PE ratio

Hence, investors have greater expectation of performance of Google in future.

4 0
3 years ago
Gomez Corp. uses the allowance method to account for uncollectibles. On January 31, it wrote off an $2,800 account of a customer
laila [671]

Explanation:

The Journal entry is shown below:-

On Jan 31

Allowance for doubtful accounts $2,800

                     To Accounts receivable - C. Green $2,800

(Being the uncollectible amount is recorded)

Mar 09

Accounts receivable - C. Green $2,300

               To  Allowance for doubtful accounts $2,300

(Being the written off amount is recorded

Mar 09

Cash $2,300

              To Accounts receivable -  C. Green $2,300

(Being the payment is received is recorded)

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Strong corporations were prevented in the early 1900s from becoming monopolies.
MArishka [77]
The answer is: b.false
5 0
3 years ago
Robert works in the import-export department of Bank of America and he has noticed the following spot currency quotes: 1 U.S. do
lubasha [3.4K]

Answer:

2.3925

Explanation:

The computation of the Mexican pesos is shown below:

= (1 British pound × 1 U.S. dollar) ÷ 1 British pound for the Danish krone

= (1.65 × 10.875 ÷ 7.5)

= 2.3925 Mexican pesos

Simply we multiplied the 1 British pound with the 1 US dollar and then divide it by the 1 British pound for Danish krone so that the correct spot currency can come

3 0
2 years ago
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