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leonid [27]
3 years ago
5

Round Hammer is comparing two different capital structures: An all-equity plan (Plan I) and a levered plan (Plan II). Under Plan

I, the company would have 180,000 shares of stock outstanding. Under Plan II, there would be 130,000 shares of stock outstanding and $2.6 million in debt outstanding. The interest rate on the debt is 8 percent, and there are no taxes. a. If EBIT is $575,000, what is the EPS for each plan
Business
1 answer:
asambeis [7]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

EPS of Plan I = $3.19

EPS of Plan II = $2.82

Explanation:

Under Plan I:

Plan I's Earning per share (EPS) = EBIT ÷ Number of shares = $575,000 ÷ 180,000 = $3.19

Under Plan II:

Interest = $2,600,000 × 8% = $208,000

Earning after Interest = EBIT - Interest = $575,000 - $208,000 = $367,000

Plan II's EPS = $367,000 ÷ 130,000 = $2.82

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From her sales income, barbara has subtracted cost of goods sold, operating expenses, interest expense, and taxes. what she has
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4 years ago
Financial Statements, Closing Entries & Ratio Analysis
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Answer: im not sure don't use my answer.

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5 0
2 years ago
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A company uses the weighted-average method for inventory costing. At the end of the period, 22,000 units were in the ending Work
ExtremeBDS [4]

Answer:

a.The ending work in process inventory is $ 146,575

Explanation:

To determine the ending work in process inventory, we need to do the following computations:

No of units in ending inventory                                    22,000 units

Material cost in ending inventory

22,000 units * 100 % (completion) * $ 2.65                     $ 58,300  

Conversion costs in ending inventory  

22,000 units * 75 % (completion) * $ 5.35                      <u> $ 88,275</u>

Total value of Ending work in process inventory        <u> $ 146,575</u>

7 0
3 years ago
ExxonMobil has historically had a very low debt-to-equity ratio within the oil industry, but it recently issued $12 billion in n
Galina-37 [17]

Answer:

The WACC before bond issuance is 3.9% and the WACC after bond issuance is 3.71%

Explanation:

In order to calculate the WACC before bond issuance , we would have to calculate first the cost of equity  using capital asset pricing model .

So Using CAPM we have Rf + Beta x Market risk premium

= 0.5% + 0.85 * 4%

= 3.9% . cost of equity

Therefore WACC before bond issuance = (Cost of equity x weight of equity + cost of debt (1-tax) x weight of debt)

= 3.9% . WACC before bond issuance will be equal to cost of equity in this case as there is no debt issue.

In order to calculate the WACC after bond issuance  we make the following calculation:

WACC after bond issuance = (Cost of equity x weight of equity + cost of debt (1-tax) x weight of debt)

= (3.9% x 0.9) + (2% x 0.1)

= 3.51% + 0.2%

= 3.71%

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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