Answer:
Option C. A debit to Equipment for $620, a credit to Cash for $140, and a credit to Accounts Payable for $480.
Explanation:
The reason is that the equipment has been acquired by the business which is worth $620 and this means that the equipment which is asset in nature must be increased by it fair value which is $620. The purchase of equipment requires the payment of $140 at the spot which means that the cash asset will be reduced by $140 and the remainder $480 will be paid in future which means that the current liabilities will be increased by $480.
Increase in Equipment (fixed asset) is debited by $620.
Decrease in Cash (asset) is credited with $140.
Increase in current liability is always credited and in this case must be credited with $480.
Journal entry in nutshell is as under:
Dr Equipment $620
Cr Cash Account $140
Cr Accounts Payables $480
Actually I got mixed up, the answer i meant to write was B.
Answer: C
Explanation:
This is because although the coupon rate is devoid of federal income tax any market discount is taxed as interest income earned. So so if there is a way that they can be taxed without jeopardizing their basic Federal income tax-free status, why not? The discount can be accreted annually and tax paid, or the tax can be paid at maturity or sale date.
Answer:
$ 4.02
Explanation:
Take two packs ×3 and it = 6 then take 6 × 67 and you get $4.02
Answer:
It will take 10.058 years from today.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Present value= $1,091
Future value= $1,728
Interest rate= 12%
<u>First, we need to calculate the number of years it will take to transform the PV into the FV:</u>
<u></u>
n= ln(FV/PV) / ln(1+i)
n= ln(1,728/1,091) / ln(1.12)
n= 4.058 years
It will take 10.058 years from today.