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alisha [4.7K]
3 years ago
10

Last year, which is used as the base year, a firm had cash of $52, accounts receivable of $223, inventory of $509, and net fixed

assets of $1,107. This year, the firm has cash of $61, accounts receivable of $204, inventory of $527, and net fixed assets of $1,216. What is the common-base year value of inventory?
A..67
B..91
C..88
D.1.04
E.1.18
Business
1 answer:
nekit [7.7K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

D.1.04

Explanation:

The computation of the common-base year value of inventory is shown below:

= Current year inventory value ÷ Last year inventory value

= $527 ÷ $509

= 1.04

Simply we divide the current year inventory value by the last year inventory value so that the common-base year value of inventory could come

All other information is not relevant.

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Comparative advantage is the ability to convince others of the best choices to make in their own self-interest. perform an activ
Ira Lisetskai [31]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "B": perform an activity at a lower opportunity cost.

Explanation:

Comparative advantage is the ability of an individual, company, or country to produce a good or service at a lower opportunity cost than its competitor. Having a comparative advantage does not mean that one entity is absolutely better than another at producing a good or service. It means that it sacrifices less to do so.

3 0
3 years ago
You are evaluating two different silicon wafer milling machines. The Techron I costs $276,000, has a three-year life, and has pr
kramer

Answer:

Techron I

-$154,842

Techron II

-$144,981

Explanation:

Techron I

Cash Flow From Year 1 to Year 3

Pretax operating costs             ($75,000)

Depreciation ($276,000 / 3)   <u>($92,000)</u>

Profit before tax                       ($167,000)

Tax (21% x $167,000)                <u>$35,070</u>

Profit after tax                           ($131,930)

Add back Depreciation            <u>$92,000</u>

Cash Flow after tax                   (<u>$39,930)</u>

Terminal Value = Salvage value - Tax = $52,000 - ($52,000 x 21%) = $41,080

NPV = ($276,000) + [ (39,930) x (1+12%)^-1] + [ (39,930) x (1+12%)^-2] + [ (39,930) x (1+12%)^-3] = ($276,000) + ($35,652) + ($31,832) + ($28,421) = ($371,905)

EAC = NPV/(1-(1+r)^-n)/r

EAC = -371,905 / ( 1 - ( 1 + 12% )^-3/12% = -$154,842

Techron II

Cash Flow From Year 1 to Year 3

Pretax operating costs             ($48,000)

Depreciation ($480,000 / 5)   <u>($96,000)</u>

Profit before tax                       ($144,000)

Tax (21% x $167,000)                <u>$30,240</u>

Profit after tax                           ($113,760)

Add back Depreciation            <u>$96,000</u>

Cash Flow after tax                   (<u>$17,746)</u>

Terminal Value = Salvage value - Tax = $52,000 - ($52,000 x 21%) = $41,080

NPV = ($480,000) + [ (17,746) x (1+12%)^-1] + [ (17,746) x (1+12%)^-2] + [ (17,746) x (1+12%)^-3] = ($480,000) + ($15,845) + ($14,147) + ($12631) = ($522,623)

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7 0
3 years ago
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Explanation:

According to Little's Law, it should be noted that:

I = R × T

where,

I = amount of flow units

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For this question,

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T = I/R

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Answer:

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egoroff_w [7]

Answer:

Using familiar words, occasional contractions, and pronouns such as you and I.

Explanation:

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3 years ago
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