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3 years ago

What are the divisors of 12,300

Mathematics

2 answers:

Sidana [21]3 years ago

7 0

1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 10.

Hope this helps :)

Sav [38]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

1,2,3,4,5,6,10

Step-by-step explanation:

You might be interested in

Write an equivalent expression. 2 + 4(c + 7)

Alex777 [14]

2 + 4 (c + 7)
2 + 4c + 28
combine liked terms
4c + 30

Answer:
B) 30 + 4c

3 0

3 years ago

Find X AND Y! pleas help me! only reply if you KNOW IT thank you

lawyer [7]

The measures of the legs of the right triangle are:

X = 2.5

Y = 4.3

<h3>How to find the values of x and y?</h3>

In the image, we can see a right triangle with a hypotenuse with a value of 5, and a known angle.

To find the values of X and Y (the legs of the triangle) we can use the two relations:

Sin(a) = (opposite cathetus)/(hypotenuse)

Cos(a) = (adjacent cathetus)/(hypotenuse)

In this case, we have:

a = 30°

hypotenuse = 5

opposite cathetus = X

adjacent cathetus = Y.

Replacing that in the relations we get:

Sin(30°) = X/5

Sin(30°)*5 = X = 2.5

cos(30°) = Y/5

cos(30°)*5 = Y = 4.3

Learn more about right triangles:

brainly.com/question/2217700

#SPJ1

4 0

1 year ago

DIscrete Math

Daniel [21]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

As the statement is ‘‘if and only if’’ we need to prove two implications

$f : X \rightarrow Y$ is surjective implies there exists a function $h : Y \rightarrow X$ such that $f\circ h = 1_Y$ .
If there exists a function $h : Y \rightarrow X$ such that $f\circ h = 1_Y$ , then $f : X \rightarrow Y$ is surjective

Let us start by the first implication.

Our hypothesis is that the function $f : X \rightarrow Y$ is surjective. From this we know that for every $y\in Y$ there exist, at least, one $x\in X$ such that $y=f(x)$ .

Now, define the sets $X_y = \{x\in X: y=f(x)\}$ . Notice that the set $X_y$ is the pre-image of the element $y$ . Also, from the fact that $f$ is a function we deduce that $X_{y_1}\cap X_{y_2}=\emptyset$ , and because $f$ the sets $X_y$ are no empty.

From each set $X_y$ choose only one element $x_y$ , and notice that $f(x_y)=y$ .

So, we can define the function $h:Y\rightarrow X$ as $h(y)=x_y$ . It is no difficult to conclude that $f\circ h(y) = f(x_y)=y$ . With this we have that $f\circ h=1_Y$ , and the prove is complete.

Now, let us prove the second implication.

We have that there exists a function $h:Y\rightarrow X$ such that $f\circ h=1_Y$ .

Take an element $y\in Y$ , then $f\circ h(y)=y$ . Now, write $x=h(y)$ and notice that $x\in X$ . Also, with this we have that $f(x)=y$ .

So, for every element $y\in Y$ we have found that an element $x\in X$ (recall that $x=h(y)$ ) such that $y=f(x)$ , which is equivalent to the fact that $f$ is surjective. Therefore, the prove is complete.

3 0

3 years ago

HELPPPPPP PLEASEEEE HELP HELP

Delvig [45]

Answer:

i believe the answer is 3pi/4

5 0

3 years ago

What fraction is equivalent to 5/9

Mama L [17]

1. Any fraction that you multiply the numerator by the same number as the denominator.
Example:
1 x 2 = 2
-------------
2 x 2 = 4
2. The simplest form of 24/60 is 2/5 I believe.
3. 4/9
4. 23/8

Please vote me brainliest on this one too
thx

3 0

3 years ago