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kramer
3 years ago
10

Bank A quotes a bid rate of $0.300 and an ask rate of $0.305 for the Malaysian ringgit (MYR). Bank B quotes a bid rate of $0.306

and an ask rate of $0.310 for the ringgit. What will be the profit for an investor that has $500,000 available to conduct locational arbitrage
Business
1 answer:
Artemon [7]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: $1639.3

Explanation:

From the question, we are informed that Bank A quotes a bid rate of $0.300 and an ask rate of $0.305 for the Malaysian ringgit (MYR) and that bank B quotes a bid rate of $0.306 and an ask rate of $0.310 for the ringgit.

The profit for an investor that has $500,000 available to conduct locational arbitrage goes thus:

Purchasing Malaysian ringgit (MYR) from bank A at the ask rate will be:

= $500,000/$0.305

= 1,639,344.3

Selling the Malaysian ringgit (MYR) at bank B based on the ask rate will be:

= 1,639,344.3 × 0.306

= $501,639.3

The profit for an investor that has $500,000 available to conduct locational arbitrage will be:

= $501,639.3 - $500,000

= $1639.3

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One reason a long-tenured top-level manager may hesitate to conclude the firm's structure is a problem is that doing so: a. sugg
uysha [10]

Answer: suggests that the firm's previous choices were not the best ones.

Explanation: For a long-tenured top-level manager to make such proclamation, shows the inefficiencies of the firm which he is a part of. He obviously has been with the firm for a very long time and making that proclamation will also be a dent in his image as a manager.

8 0
3 years ago
MILLS ALLOCATES MANUFACTURING OVERHEAD TO PRODUCTION BASED ON STANDARD DIRECT LABOR HOURS. MILLS REPORTED THE FOLLOWING ACTUAL R
tekilochka [14]

Answer:

1. Compute the variable overhead cost and efficiency variances and fixed overhead cost and volume variances.

  • variable overhead cost variance = $1,000 unfavorable
  • variable efficiency variance = -$1,200 favorable
  • fixed overhead costs = $1,500 unfavorable
  • fixed overhead volume variance = -$100 favorable

2. EXPLAIN (as best you can) why the variances are favorable or unfavorable. Based on cost and efficiency budget standards.

  • variable overhead cost variance is unfavorable because actual variable overhead costs per unit are higher than budgeted.
  • variable efficiency variance is favorable because the company used less direct labor hours than budgeted to produce a higher amount of units (1,600 vs. 2,000).
  • fixed overhead costs are unfavorable because total fixed overhead costs were much higher than budgeted, but most of this variance can be explained by higher output.
  • fixed overhead volume variance are favorable because a higher volume was produced using less hours than budgeted.

Explanation:

Static budget variable overhead $1,200

Actual variable overhead $4,000

Static budget fixed overhead $1,600

Actual fixed overhead $3,100

Static budget direct labor hours 800 hours

Actual direct labor hours 1,600

Static budget number of units 400 units

Actual units produced 1,000

Standard direct labor hours 2 hours per unit

Actual direct labor hours 1.6 per unit

standard variable rate = $1,200 / 400 units = $3 per unit

actual variable rate = $4,000 / 1,000 units = $4 per unit

standard fixed rate = $1,600 / 800 hours = $2 per hour

actual fixed rate = $3,100 / 1,600 hours = $1.9375 per hour

variable overhead cost variance = actual costs - (standard rate x actual units) = $4,000 - ($3 x 1,000) = $1,000 unfavorable

variable efficiency variance = (actual hours x standard rate) - (standard hours x standard rate) = (1,600 × $3) − (2,000 x $3) = $4,800 - $6,000 = -$1,200 favorable

fixed overhead costs = actual overhead costs - budgeted overhead costs = $3,100 - $1,600 = $1,500 unfavorable

fixed overhead volume variance = (actual fixed rate x actual hours) - (standard rate x actual hours) = ($1.9375 x 1,600) - ($ x 1,600) = $3,100 - $3,200 = -$100 favorable

5 0
3 years ago
The cash conversion cycle is computed as:
Anna [14]

Answer:

The correct option here is A) Days sales outstanding + Days inventory outstanding - Days payable outstanding.

Explanation:

Cash conversion cycle which is also termed as Net operating cycle or Cash cycle, this cycle tells us about how much time it is going to take for an organization to converts the amount of investment it has made in the inventory and various other resources to cash , which will be generated by sales.

Formula used for calculation =

                             AMOUNT OF SALES OUTSTANDING IN DAYS

                                                  +

                             AMOUNT OF INVENTORY OUTSTANDING IN DAYS

                                                  +

                             AMOUNT OF PAYABLE OUTSTANDING IN DAYS

4 0
3 years ago
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Aleks04 [339]

Answer:

a. $880.74

b. 13 years

Explanation:

a.  Conversion ratio = Current Value of bond / Conversion price  = 1,000 / 93.4 = 10.71

Conversion price of bond = 10.71 × 28.60  = $306.31

Coupon = Par value of bond * Coupon rate  = $1,000 * 6.4% = $64

Present value of straight debt is calculated below:

Present Value = $64 × [1-(1+7.4%)^-30 / 7.4%] + [$1,000 / (1+7.4%)^30]

= $64*11.93 + $117.46

= $763.28 + $117.46

= $880.74 .

Therefore, the minimum value of bond is $880.74

b. Conversion ratio = 10.71

Current stock price = $28.6

Suppose number of year the stock will take to reach above $1,140 is t.

Conversion value = Current stock price * Conversion ratio*(1+10.8%)^t

$1,140 = $28.6 * 10.71 * (1.108)^t

(1.108)^t = 3.7218

t = 12.8145 year.

t = 13 years

8 0
2 years ago
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agasfer [191]

Answer:

Hair Salon

Explanation:

An hair salon is the most helpful kind of bussiness besides chothing store's because your helping people with their hair and geting a lot of money from doing a curtain style.

5 0
3 years ago
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