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salantis [7]
3 years ago
5

Why do you earn more money using compound interest than you would using simple interest?

Business
1 answer:
PilotLPTM [1.2K]3 years ago
8 0

Interest is calculated as a <u>percentage of the principal</u>. With compound interest, the interest earned is <u>added back into the principle</u> so during the next period you start earning interest on the new, higher amount. Every time the interest compounds, it gets added into the principal and you earn more and more interest.

Example:

10% simple interest on $100:

(.1 * 100) +100 = 10 + 100 = $110

But if you do 10% interest compounding monthly for 3 months you have:

Month 1: (.1 * 100) +100 = 10 + 100 = $110

Month 2: (.1*110) +110 = $121

Month 3: (.1*121) + 121 = $133.10

Even with this simple example you can see how much more money is earned when your interest is compounded and added back into the principal.

You might be interested in
National income accountants can avoid multiple counting by1. only counting intermediate goods. 2. only counting final goods.3. i
lubasha [3.4K]

Answer:

2. Only counting final goods

Explanation:

When defining national income accounting and terminolgies, emphasis is always laid on "...total value of FINAL goods...". This is as a result of avoiding double counting. If intermediate goods were counted alongside final goods, it would be double counting because intermediate goods are used in producing those final goods. Final goods are good meant for final consumption. The other method used in avoiding double counting ( counting of the value of the same product more than once) apart from counting final gooda is Value added approach.

4 0
3 years ago
A manufacturing company that has only one product has established the following standards for its variable manufacturing overhea
Butoxors [25]

Answer:

b. $1,144 unfavourable.

Explanation:

The computation of the  variable overhead efficiency variance is shown below:

= (Actual Hours - Standard Hours) × Standard rate per hour

=(1,700  - 8.1 × 200 units) × $14.30

= 80 × $14.30

= $1,144 unfavorable

hence, the variable overhead efficiency variance is $1,144 unfavorable

Therefore the option b is correct

6 0
3 years ago
Stock Company has 2,000 units in beginning work in process inventory, 20% complete as to conversion costs, 23,000 units transfer
ss7ja [257]

Answer:

B. 26,000, 24,000.

Explanation:

Stock Company

Equivalent units

Particulars                 Units       % of Completion           Equivalent Units

                                                   Mat. Conversion          Mat.  Conversion

Transferred Out      23000         100         100           23000      23000

<u>Ending WIP              3000            100       331/3%       3000        999.9= 1000</u>

<u>Total Equivalent units                                                  26000        24000</u>

<u />

The Equivalent units can be calculated either by adding the units transferred out and ending WIP or by adding beginning WIP and units started.

Equivalent units for materials 26000

and Equivalent units for conversion are: 24000

3 0
3 years ago
.According to supply-side fiscal policy, reducing tax rates on wages and profits will:
sergejj [24]

Answer:

The answer is C.

Explanation:

Reducing tax rate according to supply - side policy creates demand pull inflation.

Demand pull inflation is a situation whereby people have more buying power due to the availability of cash thereby leading to high demand and consequentially leading to an increase in the price of goods and services by suppliers.

That is the process where demand outplays supply due  to the high purchasing power thereby causing price to increase which is the demand pull inflation effect.

6 0
3 years ago
Consider an economy described by the following equations:
Ede4ka [16]

Answer:

a. exchange rate = 1

b. exchange rate = 1.5

Explanation:

(a)  National Saving = Private saving + public saving

Private saving = Y - C - T

=> Private saving = 5000 - (250 + 0.75(Y – T)) - 1000

=> Private saving = 5000 - (250 + 0.75(5000 – 1000)) - 1000 = 750

Public saving = T - G = 1000 - 1000 = 0

National saving = 750 + 0

= 750

Investment = 1000 - 50r = 1000 - 50*5

= 750

Y = C + I + G + NX

Trade Balance = Y - C - G - I = 5000 - (250 + 0.75(5000 – 1000)) - 1000 - 750 = 0

Thus Trade Balance = 0

NX = 0 => NX = 500 – 500e = 0

=> e = 1

Thus exchange rate = 1

(b)

National Saving = Private saving + public saving

Private saving = Y - C - T

=> Private saving = 5000 - (250 + 0.75(Y – T)) - 1000

=> Private saving = 5000 - (250 + 0.75(5000 – 1000)) - 1000 = 750

Public saving = T - G = 1000 - 1250 = -250

National saving = 750 - 250

= 500

Investment = 1000 - 50r = 1000 - 50*5

= 750

Y = C + I + G + NX

Trade Balance = Y - C - G - I = 5000 - (250 + 0.75(5000 – 1000)) - 1250 - 750 = -250

Thus Trade Balance = -250

NX = -250 => NX = 500 – 500e = -250

=> e = 750/500 = 1.5

Thus exchange rate = 1.5

 

8 0
3 years ago
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