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3241004551 [841]
3 years ago
8

If G-1(x) is the inverse of G(x), what is the value of G-^1(G(x))?

Mathematics
2 answers:
vlada-n [284]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

x

Step-by-step explanation:

If you multiply a function and its inverse, you will will always get x back.

f-1( f(x) ) = x

kodGreya [7K]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

the value of G^-1(G(x)) is x

Step-by-step explanation:

We define G^-1(x) as the inverse of G(x), when we talk about functions inverse does not work like with the numbers, this means that G^-1(x) is not equal to 1/G(x).

Inverse means that if:

G(x) = y

then:

G^-1(y) = x

then if we have:

G^-1(G(x)) = G^-1(y) = x

so when we evaluate a given function in its inverse, the result is the input of the function.

And is the same in the case:

G(G^-1(x)) = x

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What is Pythagoras theorem ?

The Pythagorean theorem, sometimes known as Pythagoras' theorem, is a key relationship in Euclidean geometry between a right triangle's three sides. According to this statement, the areas of the squares on the other two sides add up to the size of the square whose side is the hypotenuse.

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