Answer:
the company purchase is $94,000
Explanation:
The computation of the total amount of the company merchanise purchase for the month is shown below:
Cost of goods sold = Beginning merchandise inventory + Purchases − Ending merchandise inventory
$92,000 = $14,000 + Purchase - $16,000
So, the purchase is
= $92,000 + $16,000 - $14,000
= $94,000
Hence, the company purchase is $94,000
<span>when the sets are completely finished, the cost should be transferred to: </span>W<span>IP inventory-Finishing
WIP stands for work in progress, which is an account to placed all the amount of manufactured product that still not ready to be sold to the market.
Since the manufacter process is in finishing stage (coloring/packing), the appropriate account should be </span>WIP inventory-Finishing
Answer:
(a) 5
(b) $150 million
(c) 45 million
Explanation:
(a) Multiplier = 1 ÷ (1 - MPC
)
= 1 ÷ (1 - 0.8
)
= 1 ÷ 0.2
= 5 ⇒ the value of the simple multiplier is 5.
b) If the autonomous expenditure is increased by $30 million then the total output will increase by:
= $30 million × 5
= $150 million
c) If the Marginal propensity to import is 0.3 then the import will increase by:
= 150 × 0.3
= 45 million
Answer:
- <em>As explained below, given that the score of the person is among the 0.03125 fraction of the best applicants, </em><u><em>he can count on getting one of the jobs.</em></u>
<em></em>
Explanation:
The hint is to use <em>Chebyshev’s Theorem.</em>
Chebyshev’s Theorem applies to any data set, even if it is not bell-shaped.
Chebyshev’s Theorem states that at least 1−1/k² of the data lie within k standard deviations of the mean.
For this sample you have:
- mean: 60
- standard deviation: 6
- score: 84
The number of standard deviations that 84 is from the mean is:
- k = (score - mean) / standar deviation
- k = (84 - 60) / 6 = 24 / 6 = 4
Thus, the score of the person is 4 standard deviations above the mean.
How good is that?
Chebyshev’s Theorem states that at least 1−1/k² of the data lie within k standard deviations of the mean. For k = 4, that is:
- 1 - 1/4² = 1 - 1/16 = 0.9375
- That means that half of 1 - 0.9375 are above k = 4: 0.03125
- Then, 1 - 0.03125 are below k = 4: 0.96875
Since there are 70 positions and 1,000 aplicants, 70/1,000 = 0.07. The compnay should select the best 0.07 of the applicants.
Given that the score of the person is among the 0.03125 upper fraction of the applicants, this person can count of geting one of the jobs.