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3 years ago

Which of the following can be construed using the folding method below ?

Mathematics

1 answer:

jeka57 [31]3 years ago

4 0

Do you av options, Because i need to see the folding method

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The side-by-side boxplots show the ages of all Oscar winners for Best Actress (females) and Best Actor (males). It's easy to see

leonid [27]

The answer is A. 61.5

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST IF CORRECT ANSWER!!!

Rom4ik [11]

Answer : 2√3

Given :-

A equilateral triangle with side length 4.

To Find :-

The value of x in the given figure.

As we know that in a equilateral triangle , perpendicular bisector , angle bisector and median coincide with each other .

So the perpendicular drawn in the figure will bisect the given side .
Therefore the value of each half will be 4/2 = 2 .

Now we may use Pythagoras theorem as ,

→ AB² = BC² + AC²

→ 4² = 2² + x²

→ 16 = 4 + x²

→ x² = 16-4

→ x² = 12

→ x =√12 = √{ 3 * 2²}

→ x = 2√3

Hence the required answer is 2√3 .

I hope this helps.

3 0

2 years ago

The probability density function of the time you arrive at a terminal (in minutes after 8:00 A.M.) is f(x) = 0.1 exp(−0.1x) for

Blababa [14]

$f_X(x)=\begin{cases}0.1e^{-0.1x}&\text{for }x>0\\0&\text{otherwise}\end{cases}$

a. 9:00 AM is the 60 minute mark:

$f_X(60)=0.1e^{-0.1\cdot60}\approx0.000248$

b. 8:15 and 8:30 AM are the 15 and 30 minute marks, respectively. The probability of arriving at some point between them is

$\displaystyle\int_{15}^{30}f_X(x)\,\mathrm dx\approx0.173$

c. The probability of arriving on any given day before 8:40 AM (the 40 minute mark) is

$\displaystyle\int_0^{40}f_X(x)\,\mathrm dx\approx0.982$

The probability of doing so for at least 2 of 5 days is

$\displaystyle\sum_{n=2}^5\binom5n(0.982)^n(1-0.982)^{5-n}\approx1$

i.e. you're virtually guaranteed to arrive within the first 40 minutes at least twice.

d. Integrate the PDF to obtain the CDF:

$F_X(x)=\displaystyle\int_{-\infty}^xf_X(t)\,\mathrm dt=\begin{cases}0&\text{for }x$

Then the desired probability is

$F_X(30)-F_X(15)\approx0.950-0.777=0.173$

7 0

3 years ago

!! PLEASE I NEED HELP ASAP, I WILL MARK THE FIRST PERSON THAT ANSWERS WITH THE RIGHT ANSWER THE BRAINIEST !!!

Tasya [4]

Answer:

A is the answer

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Please explain step by step on how you got the answer.

Jobisdone [24]

The answer is 21

First you po perenthies which would be 8-6=2 the equation now is 5+4×(2)2

Then you to exponents which would be 2×2=4 the equation now is 5+4×4

Now you multiply 4×4=16 the equation is now 5+16

Now you add 5 and 16 to get 21

7 0

3 years ago