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harkovskaia [24]
4 years ago
15

Lawson Corp. uses IFR.S and the cost model for intangible assets. On March 1, year 1, Lawson acquired intangible assets with an

indefinite life for $100,000. On December 31, year 1, it was determined that the recoverable amount for these intangible assets was $90,000. On December 31, year 2, it was determined that the intangible assets had a recoverable amount of $94,000. What is the impairment gain or loss recognized in year 1 and year 2 on the income statement?
Year I Year 2
a. $10,000 loss $6,000 loss
b. $10,000 loss $4,000 gain
c. $10,000 loss $0
d. $0 $0
Business
1 answer:
Leto [7]4 years ago
4 0

Answer:

b. $10,000 loss $4,000 gain

Explanation:

Since the carrying amount of the intangible assets is greater than its recoverable amount in the year 1, therefore the Lawson Corp shall recognised the impairment loss in respect of intangible assets in year 1 as follows:

Impairment loss=Carrying amount of intangible assets-recoverable amount of intangible asset

Impairment loss=$100,000-$90,000=$10,000 loss

Since the recoverable amount of the intangible assets is greater than its carrying amount  in the year 2, therefore the Lawson Corp shall reverse the impairment loss recognised in year 1 in the following way:

Gain=recoverable amount of intangible asset-Carrying amount of intangible assets

Gain=$94,000-$90,000=$4,000 Gain

So based on the above calculations,the answer shall be b. $10,000 loss $4,000 gain

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Hatshy [7]

Answer:

Applicant population

Explanation:

The applicant population defines when the number of employees high for selection motive for a specific department and it becomes easy to select the best from them also it becomes difficult to choose from the employee's population.

Therefore, as per the given situation, the HR manager of the bank bound the recruiting efforts for the post of a loan officer. Here many applicants already applied to the website of the American Banking Association. So Stacy finds that the Applicant population is high.

5 0
3 years ago
What isn't not a stock derivative
nadezda [96]
A derivative<span> is a contract between two or more parties whose value is based on an agreed-upon underlying financial asset, index, or security. ... Similarly, a </span>stock<span>option is a </span>derivative<span> because its value is "derived" from that of the underlying</span>stock<span>.</span>
7 0
4 years ago
Klingon Cruisers, Inc., purchased new cloaking machinery five years ago for $20 million. The machinery can be sold to the Romula
muminat

Answer:

1) Book Value= $16,464,000

2) Market Value = $19,080,000

Explanation:

The first question is to determine the book value of Klingon's assets today. Book value is the carrying value of the business in its balance sheet.

Book Value = Net working Capital + Current Liabilities + Net Fixed Assets

Net working Capital= $226,000

Current Liabilities= $700,000

Net Fixed Assets= $15,500,000

Book Value = $226,000+ $700,000+$15,500,000= $16,464,000

2) Calculate the market value

The formula for market value = How much the machinery was sold to Romulans today+ today's value of the current assets if they are liquidated

The market value of assets is a function of the current market price they can be sold for and received on the day of the valuation

Market Value= $18,000,000 + $1,080,000= $19,080,000

4 0
3 years ago
Due to erratic sales of its sole product-a high-capacity battery for laptop computers-PEM, Inc., has been experiencing financial
Nadusha1986 [10]

Answer:

the revised net operating income is   $ 26,400

Explanation:

Effect the Changes on the Units, Selling Price and Fixed Cost as described on the Original Income Statement.

                          Revised Income Statement

Sales( (12,900 units x 2)× ($20 per unit×0.90))      $ 464,400

Variable expenses ( $10× (12,900 units x 2))         ($ 258,000)

Contribution margin                                                  $206,400

Fixed expenses (144,000  + $36,000 )                    ($180,000)

Net operating loss                                                     $ 26,400

5 0
3 years ago
A U.S. firm sells merchandise today to a British company for £150,000. The current exchange rate is $1.55/£ , the account is pay
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Answer:

b

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
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