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mariarad [96]
3 years ago
13

In Agile projects early risk planning, assessment and response planning is done at a high level, and more detailed and timely ri

sk management occurs during the planning of each subsequent iteration, in daily stand-up meetings, and in retrospectives at the end of each iteration.True / False.
Business
1 answer:
kkurt [141]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

TRUE

Explanation:

Quick program management relates to the factors which determine the success or failures of a task. Risk assessment doesn't need to provide structured risk reports and reviews on agility programs. Risk management is integrated into scrum jobs, tools, and activities.

Agile risk assessment is achieved more by then describing activities. Several Agile methods search throughout the process to define and minimize the risks.

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PLEASE HURRY ASAP!!!
pogonyaev

Answer:

My best guess is numbers 1,3,4,6

Explanation:

It makes sense, number 1 when you have face-to-face discussions it will be better to understand what the person is saying. Number 3 teachers need to help others. Number 4 you need to be in contact with people around you so if you have any questions you will get an answer. Lastly, number 6 if you are unbalanced your not going to get anything done, you will be all over the place and wouldn't know what to do which is why its important to spend time regaining balance.

Hope this helps!

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Turquoise, Inc. is trying to decide whether to purchase identical inventory from one of the following suppliers: Supplier A Supp
melomori [17]

Answer:

Actual Cost of Supplier A:  $291.60

Actual Cost of Supplier B: $271.60

Explanation:

<u>Supplier A:</u>

Cost - 270

Shipping FOB shipping point

Purchase Discount = Invoice Price * Discount

For Supplier A, the invoice price is 270 and discount is 2/10 = 2%, so:

Purchase Discount = 270 * 0.02 = $5.4

Cost is:

270 + 27(shipping FOB point) - 5.4 = $291.60

<u>Supplier B:</u>

Cost - 280

Shipping Destination (so 0)

Purchase Discount = Invoice Price * Discount

For Supplier B, the invoice price is 280 and discount is 3%, so:

Purchase Discount = 280 * 0.03 = $8.4

Cost is:

280 - 8.4 = $271.60

8 0
3 years ago
In a Lindahl equilibrium: Group of answer choices no one could be made better off by reducing his or her tax burden, all things
Paraphin [41]

Answer:

everyone is willing to pay the taxes to receive the benefits.

Explanation:

Taxation can be defined as the involuntary or compulsory fees levied on individuals or business entities by the government to generate revenues used for funding public institutions and activities.

The different types of tax include the following;

1. Income tax: a tax on the money made by workers in the state. This type of tax is paid by employees with respect to the amount of money they receive as their wages or salary.

2. Property tax: a tax based on the value of a person's home or business. It is mainly taxed on physical assets or properties such as land, building, cars, business, etc.

3. Sales tax: a tax that is a percent of the price of goods sold in retail stores. It is being paid by the consumers (buyers) of finished goods and services and then, transfered to the appropriate authorities by the seller.

A Lindahl equilibrium can be defined as an economic state in which there is a production of an optimal quantity of public goods and the cost of these goods is shared in a fair manner among everybody. It was developed by Erik Lindahl.

In a Lindahl equilibrium everyone is willing to pay the taxes to receive the benefits.

6 0
3 years ago
Helpppp mee culinary
katrin [286]
What’s the question to the problem
7 0
3 years ago
Brief Exercise 259 Mintz Company issued $400,000, 10%, 10-year bonds on January 1, 2017, at 105. Interest is paid annually on De
Ira Lisetskai [31]

Answer:

Dr cash     $420,000

Cr bonds payable                        $400,000

Cr premium on bonds payable $20,000

Dr interest expense($40000-$2,000)       $38,000

Dr premium on bonds payable                  $2,000

Cr cash                                                                            $40,000

Explanation:

The bond price is the pv of all cash inflows promised by the bond which includes annual coupon and repayment of face value at redemption:

bond price=face value *105%

bond price=$400,000*105%=$420000

The cash proceeds from the issue would be debited to cash while bonds payable is credited with $400,000 and premium on bonds payable is credited with $20,000.

amortization of premium=$20,000/10=$2,000

interest payment=10%*$400,000=$40,000

8 0
3 years ago
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