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Svetlanka [38]
3 years ago
10

If input prices for a perfectly competitive industry remain constant as the output of the industry expands in the long run, the

industry supply curve will:
a. be perfectly horizontal.
b. have a positive slope.
c. be perfectly vertical.
d. have a negative slope.
Business
1 answer:
Serhud [2]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

a. be perfectly horizontal.

Explanation:

The supply curve graph the prices that suppliers will demand to produce different levels of output. It is normally upward-sloping because of scarcity of inputs that will push up costs and thus drive up cost.

If input prices does not change, <em>the industry will be willing to supply any quantity (in the long run) at the same price</em> (because if they charge higher than their constant costs they will lose to competition) => the supply curve will be a horizontal line (perfectly horizontal)

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the law of demand implies that: consumers are not responsive to price changes. consumers will, all other things unchanged, buy m
serious [3.7K]

The law of demand implies that consumers will, all other things unchanged, buy more at lower prices.

One of the most fundamental ideas in economics is the law of demand. The law of demand explains how market economies distribute resources and set the prices of goods and services that we see in daily transactions by combining the law of supply. According to the law of demand, the quantity bought varies inversely with the price. In other words, the quantity demanded decreases as the price increases. Because of declining marginal utility, this happens. In other words, consumers utilise the initial units of an economic good they buy to fulfil their most pressing requirements first, and they use the subsequent units to fulfil progressively lower-valued goals.

Learn more about the law of demand here:

brainly.com/question/10782448

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5 0
2 years ago
A 13-year, 6 percent coupon bond pays interest semiannually. The bond has a face value of $1,000. What is the percentage change
Ierofanga [76]

Answer:

b. −1.79 percent

Explanation:

You can solve this using a financial calculator. I'm using TI BA II plus ;

First, find Price of the bond if YTM = 5.5%. Since it is semi-annual, adjust the YTM  and total duration;

N = 13*2 = 26

I/Y = 5.5%/2 = 2.75%

PMT = (6%/2)*1000 = 30

FV = 1,000

CPT PV = $1046.01

Next, find Price of the bond if YTM = 5.7%.

N = 13*2 = 26

I/Y = 5.7%/2 = 2.85%

PMT = (6%/2)*1000 = 30

FV = 1,000

CPT PV = $1027.28

Percentage change =[ (New price- Old price)/Old price] *100

=\frac{1027.28-1046.01}{1046.01} *100\\ \\ = -0.017906 *100

= -1.79%

6 0
3 years ago
Hawaiian Specialty Foods purchased equipment for $12,000. Residual value at the end of an estimated four-year service life is ex
Vedmedyk [2.9K]

Answer:

1. $2,700

2. $6,000

3. $1,836

Explanation:

The computation of the depreciation expense for the first year is shown below:

1) Straight-line method:

= (Original cost - residual value) ÷ (useful life)

= ($12,000 - $1,200) ÷ (4 years)

= ($10,800) ÷ (4 years)  

= $2,700

In this method, the depreciation is same for all the remaining useful life

2) Double-declining balance method:

First we have to find the depreciation rate which is shown below:

= One ÷ useful life

= 1 ÷ 4

= 25%

Now the rate is double So, 50%

In year 1, the original cost is $12,000, so the depreciation is $6,000 after applying the 50% depreciation rate

3) Units-of-production method:

= (Original cost - residual value) ÷ (estimated machine hours)  

= ($12,000 - $1,200) ÷ ($10,000 hours)

= ($10,800) ÷ ($10,000 hours)  

= $1.08 per hour

Now for the first year, it would be  

= Machine hours in first year × depreciation per hour

= 1,700 machine hours × $1.08

= $1,836

3 0
3 years ago
Suppose that you are a student worker in the statistics department and they agree to pay you using the random pay system. Each w
artcher [175]

Answer:

The probability of getting paid more than $6500 in 100 weeks is 0.6%

Explanation:

In this problem, we need to define a probabilty distribution for the money earned.

The 100-week payoff can be expressed as

PO=40*L+80*H=40*(100-H)+80*H=4000+40H

Being L the numbers of weeks we have low pay and H the weeks we have high pay.

Now, as it is a coin flip, H is a binomial random variable with p=0.5 and n=100

For a total pay off of more than 6500, H has to be

6500=4000+40H\\\\H=2500/40=62.5

That means that in at least 63 of the 100 weeks we have to get a high pay.

P(H\geq 63)=1-\sum_{i=1}^{62} P(X_i)

If we compute the individual probabilities we get P(H≥63)=0.006 or 0.6%.

8 0
4 years ago
Discuss whether a commercial bank should specialize or diversify in terms of the services it provides.
mojhsa [17]

Answer:

The authors find that sector specialization has an overall positive effect on banks' performance. In contrast, Bebczuk and Galindo (2007) find for Argentina that banks with a diversified credit portfolio have fewer non-performing loans.

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