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Margaret [11]
3 years ago
12

The Richmond Corporation uses the weighted-average method in its process costing system. The company has only a single processin

g department. The company's ending work in process inventory on August 31 consisted of 18,000 units. The units in the ending work in process inventory were 100% complete with respect to materials and 60% complete with respect to labor and overhead. If the cost per equivalent unit for August was $2.75 for materials and $4.25 for labor and overhead, the total cost assigned to the ending work in process inventory was: Multiple Choice
$75,600
$95,400
$80,100
$126,000
Business
1 answer:
den301095 [7]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

$95,400

Explanation:

The computation of total cost of ending work in progress inventory is shown below:-

Material = 18,000 Units × 100% × $2.75

= $49,500

Labor = 18,000 Units × 60% × $4.25

= $45,900

The total cost assigned to the ending work in process inventory = Material + Labor

= $49,500 + $45,900

= $95,400

So, for computing the total cost assigned to the ending work in process inventory  we simply add material with labor.

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Jeremy Ortiz is an employee of Insulor Flooring, where his job responsibilities include selling service contracts to customers.
grandymaker [24]

Answer:

Pay recorded for September 29 is $2,100

Explanation:

Jeremy Ortiz is paid based on two sources of income. The first being the annual salary of $36,000 and the second is the commission on all the service contracts sold, which is 3%.

Since the pay period is of semimonthly (15 days), the annual salary would be divided by 24 instead of the regular 12 months. This would mean that salary of $1,500 ($36,000 / 24) would be recorded in the payroll register.

For the commission, the sales done during this semimonthly period was $20,000 of service contracts. The commission at 3% of all sales would be $600 ($20,000 x 3%).

Total pay recorded in the payroll register for the September 29 period would be $2,100 ($1,500 + $600).

3 0
3 years ago
The people in an economy have $10 million in money. There is only one bank that all the people deposit their money in and it hol
pogonyaev

Answer: d. 20

Explanation:

The Money multiplier is the number that new deposits are multiplied with to find out their total effect on the banking system.

It is calculated by dividing 1 by the required reserve ratio.

Required reserve ratio = 0.5/10

= 5%

Money Multiplier = 1/5%

= 20

7 0
3 years ago
An advantage of using the nominal group technique of group decision making is thata) People can participate as they wishb) Peopl
Katen [24]

Answer:

Letter c is correct. <u>It encourages participation from everyone.</u>

Explanation:

People are encouraged to participate in a nominal group technique because it is comprehensive to all participants.

This technique consists of creating group dynamics where each member can express their opinion about what is being proposed by voting, independently and silently, which consequently encourages the breakdown of shyness and reduces the pressure on the participant. This technique has positive effects by balancing the participation of all people and by motivating the group's sense of belonging and effectiveness.

8 0
3 years ago
On March 1, 2018, Mandy Services issued a 9% long-term notes payable for $15,000. It is payable over a 3 - year term in $5,000 p
babymother [125]

Answer:

Correct option is (B)

Explanation:

Given:

Principal amount = $15,000

Interest rate = 9% or 0.09

Maturity = 3 years

Every year Mandy Services make payment of $5,000 of principal amount and interest accrued in the previous year. In 2019, Interest accrued for 2018 would be:

Interest = Principal × rate × time

             = 15,000 × 0.09 × 1

             = $1,350

Total payment made by Mandy in 2019 = 5,000 + 1,350

                                                                     = $6,350

7 0
3 years ago
Gadget Twin Inc. has an expected net operating profit after taxes, EBIT(I-T), 12,600 million in the coming year. In addition, th
lina2011 [118]

Answer:

$10,670 million

Explanation:

The computation of the free cash flow is shown below:

= EBIT × (1 -Tax Rate) + Depreciation & Amortization - Change in Net operating Working Capital - net capital Expenditure.

= $12,600 million - $0 - $1,890 million - $40 million

= $10,670 million

We simply deduct the increase in net operating capital and the net capital expenditure from the EBIT after tax so that the accurate amount can come

All other information which is given is not relevant. Hence, ignored it

8 0
4 years ago
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