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Naya [18.7K]
3 years ago
15

When you divide a whole number by a decimal less than 1, the quotient is greater than the whole number. Why?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Setler [38]3 years ago
3 0
For this type of problem you would have to move the decimal as many places to the right as needed to make the divisor a whole number the you would move the dividend the same amount of times even if it is a whole number . Then you use what you have to divide normally. Hope this helps!
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Bella has 8 pies and she can make 2 pies in an hour. Tina has 2 pies and she can make 3 in an hour. How many hours will it take
padilas [110]
Well, if Tina can make 3 pies in one hour, she have to do 6 pies and she have already 2 so she can have as many pies as Bella, so the answer is 2 hours
5 0
3 years ago
Find the algebraic representation of the reflection below.
bogdanovich [222]
I really don’t know the answer but good luck bro
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
a. Suppose we had $15,192 cash and invested it in the bank at 16 percent interest, how much would you have at the end of 1, 2, 3
Goryan [66]

Answer:

Part a) \$17,622.72

Part b) \$20,442.36

Part c) \$23,713.13

Part d) \$27,507.23

Step-by-step explanation:

we know that  

The compound interest formula is equal to

A=P(1+\frac{r}{n})^{nt}

where

A is the Final Investment Value

P is the Principal amount of money to be invested

r is the rate of interest  in decimal

t is Number of Time Periods

n is the number of times interest is compounded per year

Part a) How much would you have at the end of 1 year?

in this problem we have

t=1\ years\\ P=\$15,192\\ r=0.16\\n=1

substitute in the formula above

A=15,192(1+\frac{0.16}{1})^{1*1}=\$17,622.72

Part b) How much would you have at the end of 2 year?

in this problem we have

t=2\ years\\ P=\$15,192\\ r=0.16\\n=1

substitute in the formula above

A=15,192(1+\frac{0.16}{1})^{1*2}=\$20,442.36

Part c) How much would you have at the end of 3 year?

in this problem we have

t=3\ years\\ P=\$15,192\\ r=0.16\\n=1

substitute in the formula above

A=15,192(1+\frac{0.16}{1})^{1*3}=\$23,713.13

Part d) How much would you have at the end of 4 year?

in this problem we have

t=4\ years\\ P=\$15,192\\ r=0.16\\n=1

substitute in the formula above

A=15,192(1+\frac{0.16}{1})^{1*4}=\$27,507.23

5 0
3 years ago
(23+ ) + 19 = 23 + ( + 19)
mihalych1998 [28]
Well in order to solve this we need to get the solution to each side. 

(23+) +19 = 23 + ( +19) 
23 + 19        23 + 19 
   = 42            = 42 

So this means 
each side equals 42 

42 = 42 

So this means there are infinite solutions 

Good Luck! :)
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is the leading coefficient of the polynomial when written in standard form? 4x + 7x2 - 6 ​
Lady bird [3.3K]

Answer:

7

Step-by-step explanation:

7x²+4x-6

7 0
2 years ago
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