Answer:
0.99804932311
Step-by-step explanation:
We solve this using binomial probability
Binomial probability formula
= nCx × p^x × q^n - x
= n!/(n - x)! x!
Where n = Number of trials = 25 samples
x = Number of successes = 23
p = probability of success = 99% = 0.99
q = probability of failure = 1 - p
= 1 - 0.99
= 0.01
Hence,
p(at least 23 are properly filled) = p(X ≥ x)
= [25!/(25 - 23)! × 23! × 0.99^23 × 0.01^25 - 23 ]+ [25!/(25 - 24)! × 24! × 0.99^24 × 0.01^25 - 24 ]+ [25!/(25 - 25)! × 23! × 0.99^25 × 0.01^25 - 25]
= [300 × 0.99 ^23 × 0.01^2] + [25 × 0.99^24 × 0.01^1] + [1 × 0.99^25 + 0.01^0]
= 0.0238084285 + 0.1964195352 + 0.7778213594
= 0.99804932311
Answer:
The picture is just white
Step-by-step explanation:
Is that a minus sign in between the x) and x=8?
Answer:
(-
,
)
Step-by-step explanation:
Given the2 equations
6 - 2x = y → (1)
14 + 3x = y → (2)
Substitute y = 14 + 3x into (1)
6 - 2x = 14 + 3x ( subtract 3x from both sides )
6 - 5x = 14 ( subtract 6 from both sides )
- 5x = 8 ( divide both sides by - 5 )
x = - 
Substitute x = -
into either of the 2 equations for the corresponding value of y
Substituting into (1)
y = 6 - 2(-
) =
+
= 
solution is ( -
,
)
Answer:
c ≤ -14/17
Step-by-step explanation:
-32c+12 ≤-66c-16
-32c+12-12 ≤-66c-12-12
-32c ≤-66c-28
-32c+66c ≤-66c-28 +66c
34c ≤-28
34c/34 ≤-28/34