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inessss [21]
3 years ago
8

Mean:median:mode:plz help

Mathematics
2 answers:
lbvjy [14]3 years ago
7 0

In your shoes I would look up "mean," "median" and "mode" to be certain of what they mean. That knowledge (or lack of it) will certainly affect your course grade.

Rearrange the nine given numbers in ascending order: 135, 135, 142, 150, 168, 173, 178, 184, 193.

The mode is the number that shows up most often. That'd be 135. No other number shows up twice.

The median is the middle number of the rearranged seet. That'd be 168.

The mean is the arithmetic average of the 9 numbers. To find that, add up the numbers and divide your sum by 9:

135+135+142+150+168+173+178+184+193

mean: ---------------------------------------------------------------- = 162

9

djyliett [7]3 years ago
3 0
Mean= 162
Median=168
Mode=135
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3 years ago
4.5*10^-8/9*10^-9 find the quotient and write it in scientific form
g100num [7]

Answer:

5

Step-by-step explanation:

4.5*10^-8/ 9*10^-9

1) Reduce the fraction, express 9 as a product of multiplying 4.5*2

4.5*10^-8/4.5*2*10^-9

2) Then notice the common factor of numerator and denominator( 4.5) , get rid of it in both numerator and dnominator

3) 10^-8/ 2*10^-9= 1/2*(10^-8/10^-9)= 0.5* (10^-8/10^-9)

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3 years ago
To describe a sequence of transformation that maps triangle ABC onto A"B"C" , a student starts with a reflection over the x-axis
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A real estate agent has 1212 properties that she shows. She feels that there is a 50P% chance of selling any one property during
forsale [732]

Answer:

0.6127 = 61.27% probability of selling no more than 6 properties in one week.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each property, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is sold, or it is not. The probability of a property being sold is independent of any other property. This means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

12 properties

This means that n = 12

She feels that there is a 50% chance of selling any one property during a week.

This means that p = 0.5

Compute the probability of selling no more than 6 properties in one week.

This is:

P(X \leq 6) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4) + P(X = 5) + P(X = 6)

In which

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{12,0}.(0.5)^{0}.(0.5)^{12} = 0.0002

P(X = 1) = C_{12,1}.(0.5)^{1}.(0.5)^{11} = 0.0029

P(X = 2) = C_{12,2}.(0.5)^{2}.(0.5)^{10} = 0.0161

P(X = 3) = C_{12,3}.(0.5)^{3}.(0.5)^{9} = 0.0537

P(X = 4) = C_{12,4}.(0.5)^{4}.(0.5)^{8} = 0.1208

P(X = 5) = C_{12,5}.(0.5)^{5}.(0.5)^{7} = 0.1934

P(X = 6) = C_{12,6}.(0.5)^{6}.(0.5)^{6} = 0.2256

P(X \leq 6) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4) + P(X = 5) + P(X = 6) = 0.0002 + 0.0029 + 0.0161 + 0.0537 + 0.1208 + 0.1934 + 0.2256 = 0.6127

0.6127 = 61.27% probability of selling no more than 6 properties in one week.

6 0
2 years ago
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