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VMariaS [17]
4 years ago
13

In order to qualify for a role in a play, an actor must be taller than 64 inches but shorter than 68 inches. The inequality 64 &

lt; x < 68, where x represents height, can be used to represent the height range. Which is another way of writing the inequality? x > 64 and x < 68 x > 64 or x < 68 x < 64 and x < 68 x < 64 or x < 68
Mathematics
1 answer:
iren [92.7K]4 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Option A is correct.

Step-by-step explanation:

64 < x < 68

This inequality represent that the height x should be greater than 64 and less than 68.i.e.

x>64 and x<68

So, Option A is correct.

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3 0
3 years ago
You saved $300 to spend over the summer. You decide to budget $50 to spend each week.
Oduvanchick [21]

Answer:

<u>Part c) </u>

The Slope of the line is: m=-50 and represents the amount of money spent per week.

<u>Part d) </u>

The y-intercept is: c=300 and represents the maximum money we have that can be spend over the weeks (i.e. our maximum budget alowed).

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve this question we shall look at linear equations of the simplest form reading:

y = mx+c    Eqn(1).

where:

y: is our dependent variable that changes as a function of x

x: is our independent variable that 'controls' our equation of y

m: is the slope of the line

c: is our y-intercept assuming an x⇔y  relationship graph.

This means that as x changes so does y as a result.

<u>Given Information: </u>

Here we know that $300 is our Total budget and thus our maximum value (of money) we can spend, so with respect to Eqn (1) here:

c=300

The budget of $50 here denotes the slope of the line, thus how much money is spend per week, so with respect to Eqn (1) here:

m=50

So finally we have the following linear equation of:

y= - 50x + 300    Eqn(2).

Notice here our negative sign on the slope of the line. This is simply because as the weeks pass by, we spend money therefore our original total of $300 will be decreasing by $50 per week.

So with respect to Eqn(2), and different weeks thus various x values we have:

Week 1: x=1 we have y= -50 *1 + 300 = -50 +300 = 250 dollars.

Week 2: x=2 we have y= -50 *2 + 300 = -100 +300 = 200 dollars.

Thus having understood the above we can comment on the questions asked as follow:

<u>Part c) </u>

The Slope of the line is: m=-50 and represents the amount of money spent per week.

<u>Part d) </u>

The y-intercept is: c=300 and represents the maximum money we have that can be spend over the weeks (i.e. our maximum budget alowed).

4 0
3 years ago
Noel has 5/6 of a yard of purple ribbon and 9/10 of a yard of pink ribbon. How much ribbon does she have altogether?
Rom4ik [11]
You get 14/16 and when you simply you then get 7/8.
4 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Esme plans to flip a fair coin 3 times and record the results of each flip.
MariettaO [177]

Answer:

<h3 /><h3><u>Required</u><u> </u><u>Answer</u><u>:</u><u>-</u></h3>

Sample space=s={HHH,TTT,HTT,THT,HHT,TTH}

|s|=6

Probability ={\dfrac {1}{6}}

7 0
3 years ago
in the unted states, the height of men are normally distributed with the mean 69 inches and standard deviation 2.8 inches. If 16
yaroslaw [1]

Answer:

Probability that their mean height is less than 68 inches is 0.0764.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that in the united states, the height of men are normally distributed with the mean 69 inches and standard deviation 2.8 inches.

Also, 16 men are randomly selected.

<em>Let </em>\bar X<em> = sample mean height</em>

The z-score probability distribution for sample mean is given by;

              Z = \frac{\bar X-\mu}{\frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n} } }  ~ N(0,1)

where, \mu = population mean height = 69 inches

            \sigma = population standard deviation = 2.8 inches

            n = sample of men = 16

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is away from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value (area) associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X.

So, probability that the mean height of 16 randomly selected men is less than 68 inches is given by = P(\bar X < 68 inches)

 P(\bar X < 68 inches) = P( \frac{\bar X-\mu}{\frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n} } } < \frac{68-69}{\frac{2.8}{\sqrt{16} } } ) = P(Z < -1.43) = 1 - P(Z \leq 1.43)

                                                           = 1 - 0.9236 = 0.0764

<em>Now, in the z table the P(Z  x) or P(Z < x) is given. So, the above probability is calculated by looking at the value of x = 1.43 in the z table which has an area of 0.92364.</em>

Therefore, probability that their mean height is less than 68 inches is 0.0764.

3 0
4 years ago
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