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Ilia_Sergeevich [38]
4 years ago
10

An investment earns 35% the first year, earns 40% the second year, and loses 37% the third year. The total compound return over

the 3 years was ______. Multiple Choice 158.93% 19.07% 38.00% 6.36%
Business
1 answer:
Lostsunrise [7]4 years ago
5 0

Answer:

19.07%

Explanation:

The computation of the total compound return over the 3 years is shown below:

= (1 + investment percentage earned in first year) × (1 +  investment percentage earned in second year)  × (1 +  investment percentage loss in second year)

= (1 + 0.35) × (1 + 0.40) × (1 - 0.37)

= 1.35 × 1.40 × 0.63

= 1.1907

= 19.07%

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The fifth step of the financial planning process is to create and implement the financial action plan. What is involved in this
alexgriva [62]

Answer:

Developing an action plan that identifies ways to achieve your financial goals.

7 0
2 years ago
Determine whether each scenario is an example of tax avoidance or tax evasion. Andrea keeps a record of all her business-related
Brums [2.3K]

Answer:

1. Tax avoidance

2.Tax avoidance

3.Tax evasion

Explanation:

Tax avoidance refers to a legal way of reducing one's tax liability through lawful deductions. Ways to reduce tax liabilities are; capitalizing on tax advantage retirement accounts, liasing with tax advisor on the legal way for tax avoidance. Tax avoidance is however legal.

Examples of tax avoidance are;

1. Andrea keeps a record of all her business related expenses.

2. Daniel claims the amount of interest paid for his mortgage as tax deductions.

Tax evasion is a deliberate attempt by a tax payer to avoid payment of tax liability. It is a fraudulent action by a tax payer to wilfully evade tax in an illegal manner. In tax evasion, income is concealed to tax authorities inorder to evade tax payment which is a criminal offence. It is to be noted that tax evasion is illegal in the eye of the law.

Example of tax evasion is ;

3. Christian did not report the tips he earned on his tax return.

7 0
3 years ago
As the head of the engineering department for her company, Jody works with her team on complex and challenging projects. The lev
vagabundo [1.1K]

Answer:

Wide

Explanation:

Basically there are two spans of control namely; wide and narrow. A wide span of control is one in which a manager or supervisor interacts with many team members. In other words, the levels of hierarchy involved where there is a wide span of control is few. As such, this structure entails that a large number of the team members report directly to the manager.

The narrow span of control is one in which the manager supervises or interacts with a few team members. In other words, there is some level of hierarchy involved such that the managers direct subordinates are few and have subordinates who report to them.

To state it in another way, the wider the span of control, the fewer level of report or levels of hierarchy and the narrower the span of control, the higher the levels of hierarchy required.

In light of the explanation above, it can be deduced that Jody has a wide span of control over her team.

3 0
3 years ago
The main purpose of performance appraisal is to ________.
LUCKY_DIMON [66]

The main purpose of performance appraisal is to furnish feedback to organization members about how they can become more productive and useful to the organization in its quest for quality.

Therefore option C is correct

<h3>What is Performance appraisal?</h3>

  Performance appraisal can be described as the  periodic and systematic evaluation  of the job performance of an employee and its subsequent documentation documented and evaluation in other to provide verifiable evidence to the management of an organization on the strengths and weaknesses of its employees.

    The idea of performance appraisal should be viewed as a career enhancing prospect. Managers should endeavor to appraise their staff truthfully and honestly in other to bring about a healthy working environment.

Learn more about Performance appraisal at brainly.com/question/7595736

#SPJ1

4 0
2 years ago
Mill Co.’s allowance for credit losses was $100,000 at the end of Year 2 and $90,000 at the end of Year 1. For the year ended De
MatroZZZ [7]

Answer:

The amount worth $6,000 will be debited to the account in Year 2

Explanation:

When the uncollectible accounts are written off, then the debit is created to the allowance and the credit to the accounts receivable. The starting balance in the allowance account is $90,000 and the ending balance is $100,000 and the expense of bad debt is $16,000

The write off is computed as:

Write off = Beginning balance + Bad debt expense - Ending balance

= $90,000 + $16,000 - $100,000

= $106,000 - $100,000

= $6,000

Therefore, the amount of $6,000 is to be write off in Year 2

7 0
4 years ago
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